Wednesday, May 31, 2017

Important Questions On Indian Geography

1. Which major latitude passes at the south of the southernmost point of peninsular  India, that is kanyakumari?

     Ans : Equator

2. The pass located at the southern end of the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called?

    Ans : Palghat gap


3. Singhbhum and Hazaribagh in Jharkhand are famous for reserve of particular non-ferrous mineral. Identify the mineral?

    Ans : copper


4. In which river in India the Salal project is constructed on?

    Ans : Chenab


5. The percentage of earth surface covered by India is?
    Ans : 2.4%


6. The India's higest annual rainfall is reported at ?

    Ans : Mawsynram, Meghalaya

7. Which authority in India is reported responsible for the set up the refineries Mathura, Digboi and Panipat?

   Ans : Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.

8. Who is known as "Father of white Revolution" in India?

    Ans : V. Kurien


9. The Radcliffe line is boundary between?

    Ans : India and Pakistan


10. Identify the Gulf that has a potential for harnessing of tidal energy in India?

     Ans : Gulf of Cambay


11. The state having largest area of forest cover in India is ?

      Ans : Madhya Pradesh


12. Which year is called a Great Divide in the demographic history in India?

      Ans : 1921


13.Which is the only state in India that produces saffron?

     Ans : Jammu and Kashmir


14. Three important rivers of the India subcontinent have their sources near the Mansarover Lake in the Great Himalayas.

      Ans : Brahmaputra, Indus and Sutlej


15. The zonal soil type pf penisular India belongs to ?

      Ans : Red soil

16. Which food grain crop is occupied the largest part of the cropped area in India?

     Ans : Rice

17. The number of major languages, recognized in the Indian Union as official language, are

     Ans : 22

18. Which state in India has the largest number of district?

      Ans : Uttar Pradesh


19. The oldest rocks in India are reported from

      Ans : Dharwar region, Karnataka

20.which atomic power station in India is built completely indigenously?

      Ans : Kalpakkam

Saturday, May 27, 2017

Most Important GK (Basic Constitutiona)

######CONSTITUTION_BASIC_Gk######
1. Who was the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer-------Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha.
2. Who was the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer-------Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
3. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
Answer-------Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
4. Who was the legal advisor of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer-------B. N. Rao.
5. How long the Constituent Assembly took to prepare the Indian Constitution, the largest in
the world?
Answer-------2 year 11 month and 18 days.
6. Indian Constitution was adopted by the Government of India on?
Answer-------26 November 1949.
7. Indian Constitution was enforced by the Government of India on?
Answer-------26 January 1950.
8. Part III (article 12 - 35) of the Constitution deals with?
Answer-------Fundamental Right.
9. Which article contains Right to freedom of speech?
Answer-------Article 19.
10. After which amendment Right to Property became a legal right?
Answer-------44th Amendment.
11. Which Article describes the election of President?
Answer-------Article 55.
12. The term of the president is?
Answer-------5 years.
13. Which Articel lays down the procedure for impeachment of the President?
Answer-------Article 61.
14. Who is the ex-officio chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)?
Answer-------Vice-President.
15. Who is the authority to decide any dispute in connection with the election of the President
and the Vice-President?
Answer------- The Supreme Court of India.

16. Who gave advice to the Government of India upon legal matters?
Answer-------Attorney General of India.
17. Who is the authority to decide whether the introduced bill is a Money Bill or not?
Answer-------Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
18. Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, True or False?
Answer-------True.
19. A bill which is related with revenue and expenditure of the Government is called?
Answer-------Finance Bill.
20. The term of members of Rajya Sabha is?
Answer-------6 years.
21. How many members are nominated by the President in the Rajya Sabha?
Answer-------12 members.
22. How many members are nominated by the President in the Lok Sabha?
Answer-------2 members (Anglo-Indian).
23. The retirement age of the judges of the Supreme Court is?
Answer-------65 years.
24. The retirement age of the judges of the High Court is?
Answer-------62 years.
25. Which Articles provide special status to Jammu and Kashmir?
Answer-------Article 370.
26. Under which Article powers and duties of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
are described?
Answer-------Article 149 and 150.
27. Under which Article reports of the CAG relating to the union are submitted to the
President?
Answer-------Article 151.
28. In which year Election Commission of India was established?
Answer-------25 January 1950.
29. Who was the first Vice-President of India?
Answer-------S. Radhakrishnan.
30. Who was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court?
Answer-------M. Fathima Beevi.
31. In which year first Lok Sabha election was held?

Answer-------1952.
32. The constitutional provision 'Concurrent List' was borrowed from which country?
Answer-------Australia.
33. The model code of conduct for political parties and candidates to be followed during
election is specified in?
Answer-------Representation of the People Act, 1951.
34. Who is the Chairman of Lok Sabha?
Answer-------Speaker.
35. Which articles empowers the President to appoint Prime Minister of India?
Answer-------Article 75.
36. Which has the most profound influence in framing the India Constitution?
Answer-------The Government of India Act, 1935.
37. Who is the Chairman of the National Integration Council?
Answer-------Prime Minister of India.
38. In the Union Government the council of Ministers is collectively responsible to?
Answer-------Lok Sabha.
39. In India when both offices of President and Vice-President happen to be vacant
simultaneously who will discharge the duties of the President?
Answer-------Chief Justice of India.
40. Who determines the salaries and allowances of the members of the Parliament in India?
Answer-------Parliament by Law.
41. British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act on?
Answer-------18 July 1947
42. Total number of Fundamental Rights in Constitution of India are?
Answer-------6.
43. Total number of Schedule in Constitution of India are?
Answer-------12.
44. Which Article of the Constitution defines Panchayat Raj?
Answer-------Article 243.
45. Under Constitutional Article 343, which is the official language of the Union?
Answer-------Hindi and English.
46. Which community gets special provision for Central Services in Article 336?
Answer-------Anglo-Indian community.

47. Which Constitutional Article lays down the provision for a National Commission for SC
and ST?
Answer-------Article 338.
48. Before the Independence of India, Dadar and Nager Haveli was under the administrative
control of?
Answer-------Portugese.
49. Who decides allotment of symbols to Political Parties?
Answer-------Election Commission.
50. Who has the authority to approve President rule in the state?
Answer-------Parliament.
51. Which Article specifies the number of seats for the Rajya Sabha?
Answer-------Article 80
52. Which Article specifies the number of seats for the Rajya Sabha?
Answer-------Article 80
53. Which Article specifies the number of seats for the Lok Sabha?
Answer-------Article 81
54. Which Article refers to Imposition of President\'s rule in States?
Answer-------Article 356
55. Which Schedule contains list of recognised languages of India?
Answer-------Schedule 8
56. Which Schedule contains the power, authorities and responsibilities of Panchayats?
Answer-------Schedule 11
57. With which Amendment to the Constitution Sikkim was made a full-fledged State of
Indian Union?
Answer-------36th Amendment, 1975
58. Planning Commission is a constitutional body, True or False?
Answer-------False
59. The word 'Minority' appears in which article of the Indian Constitution?
Answer------- Article 29
60. By which Amendment voting age was reduced from 21 to 18?
Answer------- 61st Amendment, 1989
61. The concept of welfare state is included in the constitution of India in the?
Answer-------Directive Principle of State Policy
62. The retirement age of Member of the State Public Service Commission is?

Answer-------60 years
63. the concept of single citizenship is adopted from which country?
Answer-------Britain
64. How many Fundamental Duties have been incorporated in the Constitution of India?
Answer-------10
65. From which fund unanticipated expenditure can be met without the prior approval of the
Parliament?
Contingency Fund of India
66. Which Articles of Constitution provides the rights of running their own educational
institutions to religious minorities?
Article 30(1)
67. The Constitution of India assures economic justice to its Citizens through the? Preamble
68. National Development council was constituted on?
1952
69. The concept of "Minimum Needs" was an innovation of which one of the following Five
Year Plans?
5th Five Year Plan
70. The 97th Constitutional Amendment dealt with?
Anti-Defection Bill
71. Who approves the Draft outline of Five Year Plan?
Answer-------The National Development Council
72. Which of Constitutional Provisions allows the propagation of one's own religion?
Answer-------Article 25(1)
73. Which Schedule contains distribution of legislative power between the centre and the
states?
Answer------- 7th Schedule
74. Which Right is enjoyed by the Citizens and Foreigners both?
Answer-------Civil Right
75. One-third of the members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years, True or False?
Answer-------True
76. Kerala does not have legislative council, True or False?
Answer------- True
77. Under which Article the Provision of Contingency Fund of India has been made?
Answer------- Article 267

78. In which year Right to Information Act was passed?
Answer------- 2005
79. The President of India can exercise his veto power in respect of?
Answer-------Ordinary bills only
80. What is the minimum duration of a stay necessary, before a person can apply for Indian
citizenship?
Answer------- 5 years
81. The chief source of political power in India is?
Answer------- The people
82. Which has the most profound influence in framing the Indian Constitution?
Answer-------The Government of India Act, 1935
83. Who was the last British Governor General who addressed the Constituent Assembly?
Answer-------Lord Mountbatten
84. Which Article mentioned the post of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the
Rajya Sabha?
Answer-------Article 89
85. In case President Rule in the state is not approved by the Parliament, for how many
months the same promulgation shall last?
Answer-------6 months
86. To uphold and protect the sovereignity, unity and integrity of India, a provision has been
made in the?
Answer-------Fundamental Duties
87. Article 356 of the Constitution of India deals with?
Answer------- The proclamation of President's Rule in a State
88. In what way the Finance Commission can recommend to the centre for transfer of
resources to States?
Answer------- Subsidy and tax share
89. Which one of the Directive of Principles was not included in the Original Constitution, but
was added by the 42nd Amendment?
Answer-------To provide free legal aid
90. Who has the authority to proclaim emergency in the States?
Answer-------The President
91. Who has the right to convene the Joint Session of the two Houses of Parliament in India?
Answer------- The President

92. The first Five-Year Plan in India was launched in the year?
Answer------- 1951
93. Which Constitutional Article defines the Panchayat Raj ?
Answer-------243
94. What is the literal meaning of secularism?
Answer------- Separation of Church from the state
95. Which one is competent to amend the law relating to Indian citizenship?
Answer-------The Parliament
96. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India acts as the Chief Accountant and Auditor
for the?
Answer-------Both Union and State Governments
97. The Supreme Court of India consists of a Chief Justice and?
Answer------- 25 judges
98. How many seats are reserved for Union Territories in the Lok Sabha?
Answer-------15 seats
99. In which article of the Constitution of India has the Joint Sitting of the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha been provided ?
Answer-------Article 108
100. In the National Flag, which colour is used in the wheel?
Answer------- Navy Blue
101. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of
operation without approval by the Parliament?
Answer------- Two Months
102. Allocation of revenue between the Union and State Government is done by?
Answer-------Finance Commission of India
103. For the first time the President of India made a proclamation of emergency under article
352 in the year?
Answer-------1962
104. Which article of the Constitution describes the qualification of the judges of the Supreme
Court of India?
Answer-------124 (3)
105. Financial Planning is included in the State List of the Constitution, True or False?
Answer-------False, it is included in the Central List

106. Indians should have a Constitution Assembly to frame a Constitution of India- this was
put forwarded by?
Answer-------M. N. Roy
107. Minimum number of members required to form a meeting is called?
Answer------- Quorum
108. Right to Education for children was made Fundamental Right in the year?
Answer------- 2002
109. National Women Commission was formed in the year?
Answer------- 1992
110. Official house of the Election Commission of India is known as?
Answer-------Nirvachan Sadan
111. Organisation of village panchayat is mentioned in which article?
Answer-------Article 40
112. The annual Budget is normally presented in the Parliament on?
Answer-------28th February
113. The fundamental duties of Indian citizens were incorporated in the constitution in the
year?
Answer-------1976
114. The power to prorogue the Lok Sabha rests with?
Answer-------The President of India
115. In which year State Reorganisation bill was passed by the Parliament?
Answer-------1956
116. The total number of High Courts in India is?
Answer------- 24
117. The words - Socialist, Secular and Integrity were added to the Preamble of the
Constitution in the year?
Answer------- 1976 (42nd Amendment)
118. Under which amendment of the Constitution, the states were reorganised?
Answer------- 7th Amendment
119. Which Act gave the authority to the British to elect the Government in the Indian
Province?
Answer-------The Government of India Act, 1935
120. Which article of the Constitution is related to the Annual Financial Statement?
Answer------- Article 112

121. Who drafted the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
Answer------- Jawaharlal Nehru
122. Who inaugurated the Parliament House of India?
Answer-------Lord Irwin (1927)
123. Who is known as the second law officer of India?
Answer------- Solicitor General of India
124. Who was the chairman of 13th finance commission?
Answer-------Dr Vijay Kelkar
125. Who was the first acting President of India?
Answer-------V. V. Giri
126. Who was the first Attorney General of India?
Answer-------M. C. Setalvad
127. Who was the first Chairman of Finance Commission?
Answer-------K. C. Neogy
128. Who was the first Solicitor General of India?
Answer-------V. Narahari Rao
129. Who was the legal advisor of the Constitutent Assembly?
Answer------- B. N. Rao
130. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of?
Answer-------6 year or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier
131. In which year was Tashkent Pact signed between India and Pakistan?
Answer-------1966
132. The Sarkaria Commission was set up for the review of the relation between?
Answer------- The Centre and States
133. In which Schedule to the Constitution of India has the list of national languages been
mentioned?
Answer-------8th Schedule
134. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha votes only in case of?
Answer-------Tie
135. Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List provided?
Answer------- It is in the national interest
136. Article 24 of the Constitution prohibits employment of children in any factory below the
age of?

Answer-------14 years
137. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women is?
Answer-------A Fundamental Right
138. Which amendment of the Constitution reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
Answer-------61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988
139. Which Parliamentary Standing Committee is concerned with the regularity of the
expenditure of the government?
Answer-------Public Accounts Committee

Indian Geography (APSC Mock Test)

Indian Geography Part -1

1. Which of the following geographical term related with the ''piece of sub-continental land that is surrounded by water''?

A. Peninsula

B. Gulf

C. Strait

D. Island

2. Which of the following geographical term related with a body of land surrounded by water on three sides?

A. Peninsula

B. Gulf

C. Strait

D. Island

3. Which of the following geographical term related with a naturally formed, narrow, typically navigable waterway that connects two larger bodies of water?

A. Peninsula

B. Gulf

C. Strait

D. Island

4. Which of the following is suitable definition of ‘Archipelago’?

A. A circular coral reef that encloses a shallow lagoon.

B. A chain or set of islands grouped together.

C. The plant and animal life on the earth.

D. None of the above

5. Which of the following is the largest Archipelago in the world?

A. Andaman & Nicobar Island

B. Malaysia

C. Indonesia

D. Maldives

6. Which of the following is the world’s largest peninsula?

A. India

B. South Africa

C. Arabia

D. Both A & B

7. Which of the following passes cuts through the Pir Panjal range and links Manali and Leh by road?

A. Rohtas Pass

B. Mana Pass

C. Niti Pass

D. Nathula Pass

8. Which of the following pass has been created by the Indus River?

A. Rohtas Pass

B. Nathula Pass

C. Baralachala Pass

D. Banihal Pass

9. Which passes make way to the land route between Kailash and the Manasarovar?

A. Mana Pass

B. Rohtas Pass

C. Nathula Pass

D. Baralachala Pass

10. Which of the following pass link the Srinagar to Leh?

A. Mana Pass

B. Rohtas Pass

C. Nathula Pass

D. Zoji La Pass

Answer ::
1.D
2.A
3.C
4.B
5.C
6.C
7.A
8.D
9.A
10.D

Indian Geography Part -2

1. Which of the following imaginary line almost divides India into two equal parts?

A. Equator

B. Tropic of Cancer

C. Tropic of Capricorn

D. Arctic Circle

2. Which of the following water bodies is the home of Lakshadweep?

A. Arabian Sea

B. Bay of Bengal

C. Indian Ocean

D. Atlantic Ocean

3. Which of the following region supports the Karewa formation?

A. North-eastern Himalayas

B. Himachal-Uttaranchal Himalayas

C. Eastern Himalayas

D. Kashmir Himalayas

4. Where is the Loktak Lake situated?

A. Kerala

B. Uttaranchal

C. Manipur

D. Rajasthan

5. Which of the following water bodies separates the Andaman from the Nicobar?

A. 11° Channel

B. Gulf of Mannar

C. 10° Channel

D. Andaman Sea

6. Which of the following hill ranges dominated by the  ‘Dodabeta’ peak?

A. Nilgiri hills

B. Anaimalai hills

C. Cardamom hills

D. Nallamala hills

7.  Which of the following river is called as the ‘Sorrow of Bengal’?

A. The Gandak

B. The Kosi

C. The Son

D. The Damodar

8. Which of the following river has the largest river basin in India?

A. The Indus

B. The Ganga

C. The Brahmaputra

D. The Krishna

9. Which of the following rivers is not part of  ‘Panchnad’?

A. The Ravi

B. The Indus

C. The Chenab

D. The Jhelum

10. Which of the following rivers flows in a rift valley?

A. The Son

B. The Yamuna

C. The Narmada

D. The Luni

Answers:
1.B
2.A
3.D
4.C
5.C
6.A
7.B
8.B
9.B
10.C

Indian Geography Part-3

1. Consider the following statement(s) is/are related to the Vishnu Prayag

I.It is one of the Panch Prayag (five confluences) of Alaknanda River, and lies at the confluence of Alaknanda River and Dhauliganga River, in Chamoli district in the Indian state of Uttarakhand

II. Place of confluence of the Alkananda and the Bhagirathi

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Code:

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

2. Consider the following statement(s) is/are related to the  Alaknanda River

I. It originates in the eastern slopes of glacier fields of Chaukhamba, is joined by the Saraswathi River near Mana, and then flows in front of the Badrinath temple.

II. It then meets the Dhauli Ganga River, which originates from the Niti Pass, to form the Vishnuprayag. This stretch of the Alaknanda River is called the Vishnu Ganga.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Code:
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

Ans: C

3. Consider the following statement(s) is/are related to the Storms during the Hot Weather Season

I. Mango Showers (since the rain showers are good for the mango trees) occurs along the coast of Kerala.

II.Loo is the name given to the hot, dry winds that blow in the Northern Plains. It is very common in Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh (called "aandhi") and Bihar.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Code:
A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

4. Consider the following statement(s) is/are about South- West Monsoon

I.The bulk of rainfall is received during this season in almost every part of India except Tamil Nadu.

II.Blossom Shower with this shower, coffee flowers blossom in Karnataka and its nearby areas.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Code:

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

5. Which of the following longitudes is the standard meridian of India?

A. 69°30'E

B. 75°30'E

C. 82°30'E

D. 90°30'E

6. Which of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?

A. Silchar

B. Cherrapunji

C. Mawsynram

D. Guwahati

7. What is the local name of the wind blowing in the northern plains during summers ?

A. Kaal Baisakhi

B. Trade Winds

C. Loo

D. None of the above

8. Which of the following reason of rainfall during winters in north-western part of India?

A. Cyclonic depression

B. Western disturbances

C. Retreating monsoon

D. Southwest monsoon

9. Consider the following statement(s) is/are related to Himalayan Range

I. It form the highest mountain range in the world, extending 2,500 km over northern India .

II. Bounded by the Indus river in the west and the Brahmaputra in the east, the three parallel ranges, the Himadri, Himachal and Shivaliks have deep canyons gorged by the rivers flowing into the Gangetic plain.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Code:
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

10. Which of the following factor is  characterises by  the cold weather season in India?

A. Warm days and warm nights

B. Warm days and cold nights

C. Cool days and cold nights

D. Cold days and warm nights

Answers:
1.A
2.C
3.C
4.A
5.C
6.C
7.C
8.B
9.C
10.C

Indian Geography Part -4

1. Which one of the following describes the drainage patterns resembling the branches of a tree?

A. Radial

B. Centrifugal

C. Dendritic

D. Trellis

2. In which of the following states is the Wular Lake located?

A. Rajasthan

B. Punjab

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Jammu and Kashmir

3. The river Narmada is originate from.....

A. Satpura

B. Amarkantak

C. Brahmagiri

D. Slopes of the Western Ghats

4. Which one of the following lakes is a salt water lake?

A. Sambhar

B. Wular

C. Dal

D. Gobind Sagar

5. Which one of the following is the longest river of the Peninsular India?

A. Narmada

B. Godavari

C. Krishma

D. Mahanadi

6. Which one amongst the following rivers flows through a rift valley?

A. Damodar

B. Tapi

C. Tungabhadra

D. Both A & B

7. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as

A. Coast

B. Peninsula

C. Island

D. None of the above

8. Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with Myanmar are collectively called as

A. Himachal

B. Purvanchal

C. Uttaranchal

D. None of the above

9. The Western Coastal strip, south of Goa is referred to as

A. Coromandal

B. Kannad

C. Konkan

D. Northern Circar

10. The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is

A. Anai Mudi

B. Mahendragiri

C. Kanchenjunga

D. Khasi

Answer
1.D
2.D
3.B
4.A
5.B
6.D
7.B
8.B
9.B
10.B

Tuesday, May 23, 2017

AN INTRODUCTION TO INDIAN GEOGRAPHY


INDIA

1. In the north, it is bound by the lofty Himalayas.
2. The Arabian Sea in the west
3. The Bay of Bengal in the east and the Indian Ocean in the south
4. The north-south extent from Kashmir to Kanyakumari is about 3,200 km.
5. And the east-west extent from Arunachal Pradesh to Kutch is about 2,900 km.

LOCATIONAL SETTING

1. India is located in the northern hemisphere
2. The Tropic of Cancer (23°30 ' N) passes almost halfway through the country
3. From south to north, India extends between 8°4' N and37°6' N latitudes.
4. From west to east, India extends between 68°7 ' E and97°25 'E longitudes.
5. The southernmost point of the Indian Union– ‘Indira Point’ got submerged under the sea
water in 2004 during the Tsunami.

SIZE

1. An area of 3.28 million square km.
2. India’s total area accounts for about 2.4 per cent of the total geographical area of the
world.
3. India is the seventh largest country of the world.
4. India has a land boundary of about 15,200 km
5. The total length of the coast line of the mainland including Andaman and Nicobar and
Lakshadweep is 7,516.6 km.
6. India is bounded by the young fold mountains in the northwest, north and north east.
7. From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh there is a time lag of two hours.
8. Hence, time along the Standard Meridian of India (82°30'E) passing through Mirzapur (in
Uttar Pradesh) is taken as the standard time for the whole country.
9. Rajasthan is the largest state
10. Goa is the smallest state in terms of area.
11. No other country has a long coastline on the Indian Ocean as India has and indeed, it is
India’s eminent position in the Indian Ocean which justifies the naming of an Ocean after it.
12. Since the opening of the Suez Canal in 1869, India’s distance from Europe has been reduced
by 7,000 km.

Do you know?

1. The USA and Canada have six time zones extending from the Pacific coast to the Atlantic
coast.
2. The local time changes by four minutes for every one degree of longitude.
3. The local time of longitude of 82°30' E has been taken as the Indian Standard Time.

INDIA’S NEIGHBOURS

1. There are seven countries that share land boundaries with India
2. Across the sea to the south, lie our island neighbours— Sri Lanka and Maldives.
3. Sri Lanka is separated from India by the Palk Strait.

India shares its land boundaries with

1. Pakistan
2. Afghanistan
3. China (Tibet)
4. Nepal
5. Bhutan
6. Myanmar
7. Bangladesh
Two island countries
1. Sri Lanka
2. Maldives

PHYSICAL FEATURES OF INDIA

1. Most volcanoes and earthquakes in the world are located at plate margins, but some do
occur within the plates.
2. The oldest landmass, (the Peninsula part of India), was a part of the Gondwana land.
3. The Gondwanaland included India, Australia, South Africa and South America as one single
land mass.

4. The convectional currents split the crust into a number of pieces.
5. This leads to the drifting of the Indo-Australian plate after being separated from the
Gondwana land, towards north.
6. The northward drift resulted in the collision of the plate with the much larger Eurasian Plate
7. Due to this collision, the sedimentary rocks which were accumulated in the geosynclines
known as the Tethys were folded to form the mountain system of western Asia and
Himalaya.

What is Gondwanaland?

1. It is the southern part of the ancient super continent Pangea with Angara Land in the
northern part.
2. The Himalayan uplift out of the Tethys Sea and subsidence of the northern flank of the
peninsular plateau resulted in the formation of a large basin.
3. In due course of time this depression, gradually got filled with deposition of sediments by
the rivers flowing from the mountains in the north and the peninsular plateau in the south.
4. A flat land of extensive alluvial deposits led to the formation of the northern plains of India.
5. Geologically, the Peninsular Plateau constitutes one of the ancient landmasses on the
earth’s surface.

Monday, May 22, 2017

Top 100 Indian Economy Questions with Answers

1. Which sector of Indian Economy has shown remarkable expansion during the last decade? – Tertiary Sector

2. Hindu Rate of growth refers to the rate of growth of which sector? – GDP

3. In India, Hindu Rate of Growth is associated with which income? – National Income

4. What is the base year for computation of National Income in India? – 1993-94

5. As the economy develops, what happens in the share of the tertiary sector in the GDP? – Increases

6. Who coined the term ‘Hindu rate of growth’ for Indian Economy? – Raj Krishna

7. Who wrote a book describing the theory of economic drain of India during British rule? – Dadabhai Naoroji

8. Which is definitely a major indication of the State of the economy of a country? – Rate of GDP growth

9. Where is the Indian Sugarcane Research Institute situated? – Lucknow

10. The impact of Green Revolution was felt most in the production of which crop? – Wheat

11. Which is the apex organisation of Marketing Co-operatives at the national level? – NAFED

12. Under which Five Year Plan agriculture register a negative growth? – Third

13. Where is the Central Food Technological Research Institute (CFTRI) situated? – Mysore

14. Where first Agriculture University of India was established? – Pantnagar

15. In which year was the Food Corporation of India (FCI) set up? – 1965

16. Which bank provides the largest credit to agriculture and allied sectors? – Commercial Banks

17. Which is the apex institution in the sphere of Agriculture credit? – NABARD

18. The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act was legislated in which year? – 1976

19. The Green Revolution in India was the outcome of the efforts of which person? – M. S. Swaminathan

20. Who is known as Father of White Revolution in India? – V. Kurien

21. Where is the Central Rice Research Institute located? – Cuttack

22. Dr. M. S. Swaminathan has distinguished himself in which fields? – Agriculture

23. Agriculture sector directly employs what percentages of labour force in India? – 65 %

24. Which method of soil conservation is most effective in arid areas? – Shelter belt

25. Which state is the most industrially advanced State in India? – Maharashtra

26. Industrial licensing was finally abolished (with a few exception) in which policy? – Industrial Policy, 1991

27. First Industrial Policy of free India was announced in which year? – 1948

28. Who was the Chairman of the National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganised Sector? – Arjun Sengupta

29. Commercial paper is a source of credit for which industry? – Corporate Industry

30. Which car companies has launched a small cheaper car ‘Nano’? – Tate Motors Ltd.

31. What is the classification of industries on the basis of raw-materials? – Primary and Secondary

32. Which is the biggest enterprise of the Government of India? – Railway

33. Raurkela Steel Plant was set up with the assistance from which country? – West Germany

34. In India, liberal Industrial Policy was adopted in which year? – 1991

35. Bhilai Steel Plant is the collaborative project of Indian Government and which other country? – Soviet Union

36. Since when disinvestment started in public enterprises? – 1991-92

37. Which entity holds the Number 1 position among Indian international trading company? – MMTC

38. Which one of the following Indian States does not keep its own High Court? – Manipur

39. Which one of the following is not the main jurisdiction of the High Court of a State? – Advisory Jurisdiction

40. Omkar Goswami Committee was set up by the Government for examining the issue of which matter? – Industrial sickness

41. The licensing policy for the industries drew strength from which act? – Industrial Act, 1951

42. Where is the Forest Reserve Institute of India located? – Dehradun

43. Which State in’ India is estimated to have the largest coal reserves in India? – Jharkhand

44. Which is a ‘Hot Spot’ for biological diversity in India? – Sundarban

45. Major coalfields of India are located in the river valley of – Damodar

46. Which one of the following is the highest gravity dam which river? – Bhakra Dam

47. What is the minimum forest cover to maintain ecological balance in the plains? – 33%

48. Which is the longest irrigation canal in India called? – Indira Gandhi Canal

49. When was the first National Forest Policy issued by the Government of India? – 1952

50. The national forest policy aims at maintaining how much of the total geographical area under forests? – One-fifth

51. The Government of India has decided to declare which river a ‘National River’? – Ganga

52. Which ‘geographical indicators’ has not been recognised for patent protection? – Darjeeling Basmati

53. National Horticulture Mission was launched in which Five Year Plans? – Tenth Five Year Plan

54. ‘Twenty Point Programme’ (Beessutri Karyakrama) was first launched in which Year? – 1975

55. Who presides over the National Development Council of India? – Prime Minister of India

56. Which is an extra- constitutional and non-statutory body? – Planning Commission

57. Which experienced the fastest expansion during the plan in India? – Services

58. Primary emphasis during Second Plan was laid on the development of which industry? – Basic and Key industries

59. Who was the First Chairman of Planning commission of India? – Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru

60. Whose name is associated with formulation of Planning Strategy in Second Five Year Plan? – Prasanta Chandra (P.C.) Mahalanobis

61. Which is the highest body that approves Five Years Plans in the country? – National Development Council

62. By whom was the Rolling Plan for backward country suggested? – Gunnar Myrdal

63. In which Five Year Plan, the main objective was the eradication of poverty? – Fifth Five Year Plan

64. Durgapur, Bhibei and Rourkela iron steel-plants were setup during which plan? – First

65. The iron and Steel plants of Rourkela and Durgapur were conceived under which plan? – Second Five Year Plan

66. The real introduction of Decentralized Planning in India was made for the first time during the which plan? – 9th Plan

67. Planning Commission was established in 1950 through which order? – An executive order

68. The slogen ‘Garibi Hatao’ (Poverty abolition) was given in which Five Year Plan? – Fifth plan

69. In which one of year ‘Rolling Plan’ was on operation in India? – 1978-79

70. The major emphasis in the First Five Year Plan was on which field? – Agriculture

71. In which Five Year Plan, Economic Development Rate was maximum? – Tenth Five Year Plan

72. Only one can be the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission. Who is that? – Prime Minister

73. Mahalanobis Model has been associated with which Five Year Plan? – Second Five Year Plan

74. The Planning Commission of India was constituted in which year? – 1950

75. Which Plan gave emphasis on removal of poverty for the first time? – Fifth

76. Which is not an objective of India’s economic planning? – Population Growth

77. The rolling plan concept in national planning was introduced by which government? – Janta Government

76. The Government has renamed NREGA scheme and the name associated with which person? – Mahatma Gandhi

77. District Primary Education Programme was initiated in which year? – 1994

78. To whose help STEP is the abbreviated name of the welfare programme? – Woman

79. On which basis has the planning, commission defined ‘Poverty line’ in rural areas in India? – 2400 k cal

80. The National Rural Employment Scheme was launched throught out the country from which date? – 1-4-2008

81. which is the developed the concept of Human Development Index? – Mehboob-ul-Haq

82. National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched in which year? – 2005

83. Swamjayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana came into being in which year? – April, 1999

84. In terms of Human Development Index which is the most developed State of India? – Kerala

85. Which programme announced by the Prime Minister for the minorities in India? – 15 Point Programme
86. ‘Food for Work Programme’ was introduced during which Five Year Plans? – V

87. In which Five Year Plan, the main objective was the eradication of poverty? – Fifth Five Year Plan

88. While calculating HDI, what are the maximum value for Life Expectancy at birth (years) taken? – 85 and 25

89. In terms of Human Development Index, India falls under which category? – Very Low

90. Which is the standard of living in a country represented? – Per Capita Income

91. Which is a project to develop watersheds in India? – NWDPRA

92. Which plan gave emphasis on removal of poverty of the first time? – Fifth

93. In India, the Community Development Programme was started on which date? – October 2, 1952

94. Which represents ‘I’ in the abbreviation IRDP? – Integrated

95. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) does not promote? – Promote inclusive growth

96. Poverty level in India is established on the basis of which expenditure? – House-hold consumer expenditure

97. Mid-Day Meal is a scheme to provide nutrious food to which childran? – school going children

98. What is NOT the source of revenue of Central Government? – Agriculture Income Tax

99. Which is the largest single source of the Government’s earning from tax revenue? – Central excise

100. Which taexs/duties is NOT under the jurisdiction of the Central Government? – Land Revenue.

Sunday, May 21, 2017

Important Notes on Indian Polity

Different Sources of the Indian Constitution

Although the skeleton of the constitution was derived from Government of India Act 1935, many provisions were imported from other constitution,, of the world. Some of them are listed below:
Government of India Act 1935: Federal scheme, office of Governor, power of Federal judiciary, emergency powers etc.
Constitution of Britain: Law making procedures, rule of law, provision for single citizenship, Parliamentary system of government, office of CAG.
Constitution of USA: Independence of judiciary. judicial review, fundamental rights, removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges, preamble and functions of Vice-president.
Constitution of Canada: Federation with strong Centre, to provide residuary powers to the centre.
Constitution of Ireland: Directive Principles of State policy, method of presidential elections, and the nomination of members to Rajya Sabha by the President,
Constitution of Germany: Provisions concerning the suspension of fundamental rights during emergency.
Constitution of Australia: Idea of the Concurrent list.
Constitution of South Africa: Amendment with 2/3rd majority in Parliament and election of the Members of Rajya Sabha on the basis of proportional representation.
The Preamble

The 42nd Amendment (1976) added the words Secular’ and ‘Socialist’ end now the Preamble reads as follows:
“We, the people of India having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: Justice, social. economic and political; Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship Equality of status and of opportunity: and to promote among them all Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation. In our Constituent Assembly on this twenty-sixty day November, 1949, we do hereby, Adopt, Enact and Give Ourselves this Constitution.”
Parts and Articles of the Constitution

• Part I/Articles 1-4 : Territory of India, admission, establishment or formation of new states
• Part II/Articles 5-11 : Citizenship
• Part III/Articles 12-35 : Fundamental Rights
• Part I V/Articles 36-51 : Directive Principles of State Policy
• Part I V-A/Article 51A : Duties of a citizen of India
• Part V/Articles 52-151 : Government at the Union level
• Part VI/Articles 152-237 : Government at the State level
• Part VII/Article 238 : Repeated by 7th Amendment 1956
• Part VIII/Articles 239-241 : Administration of Union Territories
• Part IX/Articles 242-243 : The Panchayats
• Part IX-A/Articles 243P-243 ZG : The Municipalities
• Part X/Articles 244-244 : A Scheduled and tribal areas
• Part XI/Articles 245-263 : Relations between the Union and States
• Part XMI/Articles 263-300 : A Finance, property, contracts and suits
• Part XIII/Articles 301—307 : Trade, commerce and travel within territory of India
• Part XIV/Articles 308-323 : Services under the Union and States
• Part XIV-A/Articles 323A-323B : Deals with administrative tribunals
• Part XV/Articles 324-329 : A Election and Election Commission
• Part XVI/Articles 330-342 : Special provision to certain classes SCs/STs, OBCs and Anglo Indians
• Part XVII/Article 343-351 : Official languages
• Part XVIII/Articles 352-360 : Emergency provisions
• Part XIX/Article 361-367 : Miscellaneous provisions
• Part XX/Article,68 : Amendment of Constitution
• Part XXI/Articles X69-392 : Temporary, transitional and special provisions

Friday, May 19, 2017

World Report and Publisher

1.OPEC Monthly Oil Market Report - OPEC (Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries )

2.World Oil Outlook - OPEC

3.World Happiness Report - UN-Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN)

4.Human Development Report -- UNDP

5.Global Corruption Report (GCR) - **Transparency International**

6.Levels and Trends in Child Mortality Report - UN Inter-agency Group

7.World Investment Report - **UNCTAD (United Nations Conference on Trade and Development)**

8.Actions on Air Quality - UNEP (United Nations Environment Programme )

9.Global Environment Outlook - UNEP

10.The Rise of Environmental Crime - UNEP & INTERPOL

11.United Nations World Water Development Report (WWDR) - UN-Water

12.Global education monitoring Report - UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization)

13.State of world population - UNFPA (United Nations Population Fund)

14.World Cities Report - **UN-Habitat**

15.The Global Report - UNHCR (United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees )

16.Report on Regular Resources - UNICEF (United Nations Children’s Emergency Fund )

17.The State of the World’s Children reports - UNICEF (United Nations Children’s Emergency Fund )

18.Reports on Counterfeiting and Organized Crime - UNICRI (United Nations Interregional Crime and Justice Research
Institute)

19.Industrial Development Report - UNIDO(United Nations Industrial Development Organization)

20.Global Assessment Report - UNISDR (United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction)

Tuesday, May 16, 2017

Nozmul Islam: Should I continue my dream of becoming an IAS Officer

Nozmul Islam: Should I continue my dream of becoming an IAS Officer

Nozmul Islam: Should I continue my dream of becoming an IAS Officer

Nozmul Islam: Should I continue my dream of becoming an IAS Officer

Nozmul Islam: Should I continue my dream of becoming an IAS Officer

Nozmul Islam: Should I continue my dream of becoming an IAS Officer

Nozmul Islam: Should I continue my dream of becoming an IAS Officer

Nozmul Islam: Should I continue my dream of becoming an IAS Officer

Should I continue my dream of becoming an IAS Officer

I am giving you this compliment because you are so grounded to reality but you still have great dreams. Half of our problem happens when we dream big without accounting the reality.

This is what I would have done, if I would have been at your place.

First of all, I would like to ensure that I have something in my hand. I know it is a great challenge for me to get into IAS because my past records had not been quite promising. However, I also know that every year there are people who rise from very humble background and ordinary academic record to become an IAS officer. I will draw my inspiration from people like Govind Jaiswal who rose from nothing to realize their dream of IAS. I read following about him on ‘I Like You’ which inspired me immensely.

Govind Jaiswal, 24, the son of an uneducated rickshaw puller in Varanasi, had grown up with cruel taunts like ‘However much you study, you will still be a rickshawpuller. ’ He had studied with cotton stuffed in his ears to drown the noise of printing machines and generators below his window in a poor neighbourhood where small workshops existed cheek by jowl with tiny residential quarters.

He had given Math tuitions to supplement the paltry sum his father could afford to send him each month. His ailing father had sold a small plot of land to give Govind about Rs 40,000 so that he could move to Delhi which would provide him a better place to study.

Throughout his life, he had lived with only one dream — to become an officer of the Indian Administrative Service. For him that was the only way. And when he broke the news to his family, that he was ranked 48 among 474 successful candidates in his first attempt at the exam — it was the turn of his three sisters and father to weep with unbridled joy.

If Govind can do it, why not me?

One good thing about IAS Exam is that your past performance is immaterial. As far as you can qualify the minimum criterion, everyone is treated at par. Hence, I shall not be bothered about my past performance which has no role to play in my IAS preparation.

What is most important is what I do now. I have to give my best and work as hard as I can to ensure my success in IAS examination. However, I should also try to have a plan B and write such examinations which can be cleared much easily. For example, the Staff Selection Commission (SSC) exams are much easier to qualify and I must try them too. I won’t mind getting a Group B and C job or even a clerical job first to get a financial stability. Once I have something to hang on, I must keep preparing for IAS. I would also try for State PCS examination, which are much easier to get through and provide decent facilities and job satisfaction.

I will choose a job which gives me maximum time to study. I don’t mind taking tuitions to support myself financially or get a teaching job on part-time or full time basis as these jobs would give me ample time prepare for civil services examination.

I don’t know if I would become an IAS or not, but I have to try my best and leave the rest to God.

I have heard that God helps those who help themselves.

He won’t disappoint me.

Amen

Govind Jaiswal IAS 

Polity

1. “Parliamentary Government” is also known as....

(A) Cabinet Government

(B) Responsible Government

(C) Westminster forms of government

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

Explanation: The Parliamentary Government is also known as cabinet government or Responsible Government responsible and Westminster forms of government and is prevalent in Britain, Japan Canada, India and other countries.

2. Which of the following characteristics is not related to Parliamentary Government?

(A) Resolution of lower house

(B) Collective liability

(C) Leadership of the Prime Minister

(D) Single Executive

Ans. D

Explanation: features of parliamentary system are: Dual Executive, majority party rule, collective responsibility, political homogeneity, double membership, leadership of Prime Minister, dissolution of lower and house fusion of power.

3. Which of the following is not the merit of the Presidential System?

(A) Permanent Government

(B) Confirmation in policies

(C) Limited Representation

(D) Government by experts

Ans. C

Explanation: Features of presidential system are: single executive, non-responsibility, political homogeneity may not exist, domination of president, no dissolution power of lower house and separation of powers.

4. Which of the following is a demerit of the Parliamentary System?

(A) Compressed representation

(B) Uncertainty of policies

(C) Temporary Government

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

Explanation: All of the above are demerits of the Parliamentary System.

5. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) According to the 42nd and the 44th amendment, it is compulsory for president to comply with the advice of the Council of Ministers.

(B) Presidential System is based on double executive.

(C) According to the Article 74 the Council of Ministers works under the leadership of the Prime Minister.

(D) Article 74 and 75 provides parliamentary system in the center.

Ans. B

Explanation: Presidential System is based on single executive.

6. Which of the following characteristics is not related to the Presidential System?

(A) Governance of the Prime Minister

(B) Single Executive

(C) Single Membership

(D) Dissolution of lower house is baned

Ans. A

Explanation: Presidential System is the Governance of the President.

7. Which of the following characteristics is not related to the federal government?

(A) Written Constitution

(B) Flexible Constitution

(C) Supremacy of the Constitution

(D) Independent Judiciary

Ans. B

8. In the Federal Government................

(A) All the powers and functions are vested in the Central Government and Regional Government.

(B) All powers are divided into Central Government and Regional Government

(C) Both A and B

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

Explanation: Both A and B

9. The Federal System in India is based on the model of which country?

(A) Canada

(B) UK

(C) America

(D) Japan

Ans. A

Explanation: The Federal System in India is adopted from the Canada.

10. Which of the following statements is wrong?

(A) Lok Sabha represents the people of India.

(B) The Rajya Sabha represents the states.

(C) There are only 98 topics in the center list at this time.

(D) Rajya Sabha protects the state with unnecessary interference from the Center

Ans. C

Explanation: The Union List or List-I is a list of 101 items given in Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India on which Parliament has exclusive power to legislate.

Wednesday, May 10, 2017

Important Questions on Environmental Science For SSC/SSB/Railway/TET/NET/SLAT/CAT

1.What percentage of land area should remain covered by forest to maintain Ecological balance?

A. 10%.

B. 5%.

C. 33%.

D. None of these.

Answer: Option C

2.Full form of CTBT is;

A. Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty.

B. Comprehensive Test Bank Trust.

C. Comprehensive Trust Ban Treaty.

D. Comprehensive Test Ban Trusty.

Answer: Option A

3.Full form of BOD is;

A. Bactorial Oxygen Demand.

B. Biological Oxygen Demand.

C. Biological Oxide Demand.

D. None of the above

Answer: Option B

4.In Atmosphere nitrogen consists of;

A. 25%.

B. 12%.

C. 92%.

D. 78%.

Answer: Option D

5.Full form of COD is;

A. Chemical Oxide Demand.

B. Chemical Oxygen Demand.

C. Chemical Ozone Demand.

D. None of these.

Answer: Option B

6.The disease "Itai Itai" is caused by;

A. Manganize.

B. Carbon.

C. Cadmium.

D. None of these.

Answer: Option C

7.Human being can hear range of sound frequency between;

A. 20-20,000 Hertz.

B. 10-1,000 Hertz.

C. 1-100 Hertz.

D. None of these.

Answer: Option A

8.Environmental Protection Act enacted on;

A. 1980.

B. 1978.

C. 1986.

D. 1991.

Answer: Option C

9.First International Conference on environment held on;

A. March,1968.

B. March,1970.

C. June,1970.

D. June,1972.

Answer: Option D

10.With respect to environment science, full form of SPM is;

A. Suspended Partial Matter.

B. Suspended Particulate Matter.

C. Suspended Pollutant Matter.

D. None of these.

Answer: Option B

11.In an ecosystem, bacteria are the

A. Producers.

B. Primary consumers.

C. Secondary consumers.

D. Decomposers.

Answer: Option D

12.Deforestation generally decreases;

A. Rainfall.

B. Global warming.

C. Soil erosion.

D. Drought.

Answer: Option A

13.Which one of the following are non-renewable resources?

A. Animals.

B. Forests.

C. Fossil fuels.

D. All of these.

Answer: Option C

14.Biosphere reserve project was initiated in India during;

A. 1986

B. 1984

C. 1989

D. 1985

Answer: Option A

15.Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at decibels-

A. Above 50.

B. Above 80.

C. Above 100.

D. Above 130.

Answer: Option B

16.Phytoplanktons are the members of;

A. Grassland ecosystem.

B. Desert ecosystem.

C. Forest ecosystem.

D. Aquatic ecosystem.

Answer: Option D

17.Syringes are examples of

A. Industrial wastes.

B. Biomedical wastes.

C. Domestic wastes.

D. Radioactive wastes.

Answer: Option B

18.Silviculture is the management of-

A. Rivers.

B. Lakes.

C. Hills.

D. Forests.

Answer: Option D

19.Minamata diseasse are first detected in;

A. Mexico.

B. Japan.

C. USA.

D. India.

Answer: Option B

20.Taj Mahal is threatened due to;

A. Sulphur dioxide.

B. Carbon dioxide.

C. Carbon monoxide.

D. Water vapour

Answer: Option A

21.Rapid growth of population at present time is due to-

A. Lack of awareness among people to check birth rate.

B. Global terrorism.

C. Family planning.

D. Migration.

Answer: Option A

22.Which of the following have been able to check the rapid growth of population?

A. Underdeveloped countries.

B. Developed countries.

C. Developing countries..

D. None of these.

Answer: Option B

23.Which of the following is a radioactive element

A. Uranium.

B. Argon.

C. Chromium.

D. Cobalt.

Answer: Option A

24.Supersonic planes cause;

A. Noise pollution.

B. Air pollution.

C. Radioactive pollution.

D. Soil pollution.

Answer: Option A

25.World environment day is celebrated every year on-

A. Aug 12.

B. June 5.

C. September 8.

D. July 10.

Answer: Option B

27.Ozone layer exists in;

A. Troposphere.

B. Stratosphere.

C. Mesosphere.

D. Ionosphere.

Answer: Option B

28.Ozone layer is being depleted by;

A. Smog.

B. Sulphur dioxide.

C. Carbon monoxide.

D. Chloroflurocarbon.

Answer: Option D

29.Which of the following processes contributes maximum to the power generation in
India?
a) Hydel power
b) Thermal power
c) Nuclear power
d) Solar and wind power

Solution (b)

30.Bhopal gas tragedy has been one of the most deadliest industrial hazards in the
history of India. Which of the following gas was released causing the disaster?
a) Potassium cyanide
b) Potassium isocyanate
c) Methyl isocyanate
d) Phosgene

Solution (c)

Saturday, May 06, 2017

APSC/PSC MOCK TEST -5 [Indian Economy ]

1.Debenture holders of a company are its
A.shareholders
B.creditors
C.debtors
D.directors
Answer: Option B

2.Excise duty is a tax levied on the
A.import of goods
B.export of goods
C.production of goods
D.sale of goods
Answer: Option C

3.In pursuance with the recommendations of Narsimhan Committee, the RBI has framed new guidelines
A.to govern entry of new private sector banks to make the banking sector more competitive
B.to reduce the freedom given to banks to rationalize their existing branch network
C.to setup more foreign exchange banks
D.to lend more easily for industrial development
Answer: Option A

4.Which of the following is the first Indian private company to sign an accord with Government of Myanmar for oil exploration in two offshore blocks in that country?
A.Reliance Energy
B.Essar Oil
C.GAIL
D.ONGC
Answer: Option B

5.The currency convertibility concept in its original form originated in
A.Wells Agreement
B.Bretton Woods Agreement
C.Taylors Agreement
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B

6.In the state of India, the State Financial Corporation have given assistance mainly to develop
A.agricultural farms
B.cottage industry
C.large-scale industries
D.medium and small-scale industries
Answer: Option D

7.The central co-operative banks are in direct touch with
A.farmers
B.state co-operative banks
C.land development banks
D.central government
Answer: Option B

8.States earn maximum revenue through
A.land revenue
B.custom revenue
C.commercial taxes
D.excise duties on intoxicants
Answer: Option C

9.Gross domestic capital formation is defined as
A.flow of expenditure devoted to increased or maintaining of the capital stock
B.expenditure incurred on physical assets only
C.production exceeding demand
D.net addition to stock after depreciation
Answer: Option D

10.On July 12, 1982, the ARDC was merged into
A.RBI
B.NABARD
C.EXIM Bank
D.None of the above
Answer: Option B

11.Which of the following is the most appropriate cause of exports surplus?
A.Country's exports promotion value
B.Country's stringent import policy
C.Developments in national and international markets
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C

12.If the cash reserve ratio is lowered by the RBI, its impact on credit creation will be to
A.increase it
B.decrease it
C.no impact
D.None of the above
Answer: Option A

13.Which of the following items would not appear in a company's balance sheet?
A.Value of stocks of raw materials held
B.Total issued capital
C.Revenue from sales of the company's products
D.Cash held at the bank
Answer: Option C

14.If all the banks in an economy are nationalized and converted into a monopoly bank, the total deposits
A.will decrease
B.will increase
C.will neither increase nor decrease
D.None of the above
Answer: Option C

15.India changed over to the decimal system of coinage in
A.April 1995
B.April 1957
C.April 1958
D.April 1959
Answer: Option B

16The association of the rupee with pound sterling as the intervention currency was broken in
A.1990
B.1991
C.1992
D.1993
Answer: Option C

17.On which one of the followings is the benefits received principle of taxation to achieve optimality bases?
A.Marginal benefit received
B.Total benefit received
C.Average benefit received
D.Ability to pay for the benefit
Answer: Option D

18.Devaluation of a currency means
A.reduction in the value of a currency vis-a-vis major internationally traded currencies
B.permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
C.fixing the value of the currency in conjunction with the movement in the value of a basket of pre-determined currencies
D.fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultation with the IMF, the World Bank and major trading partners
Answer: Option A

19.In the second nationalization of commercial banks, ___ banks were nationalized.
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.8
Answer: Option C

20.Since independence, both development and non-development expenditures have increased; the increase in the former being a little more than in the other. Non-development expenditure involves
interest payments
subsidies
defence
irrigation
A.I, II
B.I
C.I, II, III
D.II, III, IV
Answer: Option C

21.Depreciation means
A.closure of a plant due to lock out
B.closure of a plant due to labour trouble
C.loss of equipment over time due to wear and tear
D.destruction of a plant in a fire accident
Answer: Option C

22.Deficit financing leads to inflation in general, but it can be checked if
A.government expenditure leads to increase in the aggregate supply in ratio of aggregate demand
B.only aggregate demand is increased
C.all the expenditure is denoted national debt payment only
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D

23.The central banking functions in India are performed by the
Central Bank of India
Reserve Bank of India
State Bank of India
Punjab National Bank
A.I, II
B.II
C.I
D.II, III
Answer: Option B

24.Development expenditure of the Central government does not include
A.defence expenditure
B.expenditure on economic services
C.expenditure on social and community services
D.grant to states
Answer: Option A
ICICI is the name of a
A.chemical industry
B.bureau
C.corporation
D.financial institution
Answer: Option D

25.In the last one decade, which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest foreign direct investment inflows into India?
A.Chemicals other than fertilizers
B.Services sector
C.Food processing
D.Telecommunication
Answer: Option D

26.Non Tax revenues can be increased by improving the working of the
A.State Road Transport Corporations
B.electricity boards
C.commercial irrigation projects
D.All of the above
Answer: Option C
Which of the following is not viewed as a national debt?
A.Provident Fund
B.Life Insurance Policies
C.National Saving Certificate
D.Long-term Government Bonds
Answer: Option C

27.The condition of indirect taxes in the country's revenue is approximately
A.70 percent
B.75 percent
C.80 percent
D.86 percent
Answer: Option D

28.Deficit financing means that the government borrows money from the
A.RBI
B.local bodies
C.big businessmen
D.IMF
Answer: Option A

29.Revenue of the state governments are raised from the following sources, except
A.entertainment tax
B.expenditure tax
C.agricultural income tax
D.land revenue
Answer: Option C
Our financial system has provided for the transfer of resources from the centre to the states; the important means of resource transfer are
A.tax sharing
B.grant-in-aids
C.loans
D.All the above
Answer: Option D

30.Debenture holders of a company are its
A.shareholders
B.creditors
C.debtors
D.directors
Answer: Option B

31.Excise duty is a tax levied on the
A.import of goods
B.export of goods
C.production of goods
D.sale of goods
Answer: Option C

32.In pursuance with the recommendations of Narsimhan Committee, the RBI has framed new guidelines
A.to govern entry of new private sector banks to make the banking sector more competitive
B.to reduce the freedom given to banks to rationalize their existing branch network
C.to setup more foreign exchange banks
D.to lend more easily for industrial development
Answer: Option A

33.Which of the following is the first Indian private company to sign an accord with Government of Myanmar for oil exploration in two offshore blocks in that country?
A.Reliance Energy
B.Essar Oil
C.GAIL
D.ONGC
Answer: Option B

34.In India, inflation measured by the
A.Wholesale Price Index number
B.Consumers Price Index for urban non-manual workers
C.Consumers Price Index for agricultural workers
D.National Income
Answer: Option A

35.The annual yield from which of the following Union Government taxes is the highest?
A.Custom duties
B.Corporation tax and income tax
C.Inheritance tax, wealth tax, interest tax and gift tax
D.Excise duties
Answer: Option D

36.Subsidies mean
A.payment by government for purchase of goods and services
B.payment made by business enterprises to factors of production
C.payment made by companies to shareholders
D.payment made by the government to business enterprises, without buying any goods and services
Answer: Option D

37.National expenditure includes
A.consumption expenditure
B.investment expenditure
C.government expenditure
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D

38.Resurgent India Bonds were issued in US dollar, Pound Sterling and
A.Japanese Yen
B.Deutsche Mark
C.Euro
D.French Franc
Answer: Option B

39.If the RBI adopts an expansionist open market operations policy, this means that it will
A.buy securities from non-government holders
B.sell securities in the open market
C.offer commercial banks more credit in the open market
D.openly announce to the market that it intends to expand credit
Answer: Option C

40.Redistribution polices geared to reduce economic inequalities include
A.progressive tax policies
B.land reforms
C.rural development policies
D.All the above
Answer: Option D

41.Short-term finance is usually for a period ranging up to
A.5 months
B.10 months
C.12 months
D.15 months
Answer: Option C

42.Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in the year
A.1935
B.1945
C.1949
D.1969
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

RBI established in 1935 and nationalized in 1949.
Ref: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reserve_Bank_of_India

43.Fiscal deficit in the Union Budget means
A.the difference between current expenditure and current revenue
B.net increase in Union Governments borrowings from the Reserve Bank of India
C.the sum of budgetary deficit and net increase in internal and external borrowings
D.the sum of monetized deficit and budgetary deficit
Answer: Option C

44.Notes on which denomination has the portrait of Mahatma Gandhi printed on them?
A.1000 rupee
B.500 rupee
C.100 rupee
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D

45.The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between their cash in the hand and totals assets. This is called
A.Statutory Bank Ratio (SBR)
B.Statutory Liquid Ratio (SLR)
C.Central Bank Reserve (CBR)
D.Central Liquid Reserve (CLR)
Answer: Option B

Friday, May 05, 2017

APSC/PSC MOCK TEST -4 [Modern Indian History ]

1.Who among the following was the first president of Constituent Assembly?
[A]Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[B]Sachidanand Sinha
[C]Jawahar Lal Nehru
[D]B R Ambedkar
Answer:Sachidanand Sinha

2.The Cabinet assembly which was elected for an undivided India met for the first time on______?
[A]June 3, 1946
[B]June 6 1946
[C]June 9, 1946
[D]June 12, 1946
Answer:June 9, 1946

3.In which year constitution for India was drafted by Nehru Committee?
[A]1917
[B]1926
[C]1928
[D]1929
Answer:1928

4.On which date Indian Independence Act 1947 got Royal Assent?
[A]18 June 1947
[B]18 July 1947
[C]18 March 1947
[D]18 April 1947
Answer:18 July 1947

5.By which of the following for the first time, British government recognized the “Right of Dominion” for India?
[A]August Declaration
[B]August Offer
[C]Cripps Mission
[D]Montague Declaration

Answer:Cripps Mission

6.In the proposed federal polity of the Government of India act 1935, how many members had to be elected on communal basis for the Upper House of the bicameral legislature at the center?
[A]156
[B]150
[C]104
[D]125
Answer:150

7.The upper house was called Council of States and it consisted of 260 members. Out of these 260 members 156 were to represent the provinces and 104 to the native states. Out of the 156 which were trepresent the provinces, 150 were to be elected on communal basis. Seats reserved for Hindus, Muslim Sikhs, were to be filled by direct elections and Seats reserved for Indian Christians, Anglo Indians and Europeans was to be filled by indirect method of a electoral college consisting of their representativmembers.

8.Which of the following organizations provided medical help to the Turkish troops in the Balkan War?
[A] International Council of Nurses
[B] Pax Romana
[C] Global Humanitarian Forum
[D] Red Crescent Society
Answer:
Red Crescent Society
Red Crescent Society :Worldwide humanitarian organization providing assistance without discrimination as to nationality, race, religious beliefs, class or political opinions. It provided medical help to the Turkish troops in the Balkan War.

9.Who was the first Muslim President of Indian National Congress?
[A] Hakim Azmal Khan
[B] Abul Kalam Azad
[C] Rafi Ahmad Kidwai
[D] Badruddin Taiyabji
Answer:
Badruddin Taiyabji
Badruddin Taiyabji became the Ist Indian Barrister in Bombay; became the 2nd Indian Chief Justice; was the founding member of Bombay presidency association and INC and also presided over the 3rd congress session in Madras in 1887.

10.Who was elected the President of Indian National Congress in the Surat Session 1907 famous for Surat Split?
[A] Dr. Rash Bihari Ghosh
[B] Lala Lajpat Rai
[C] Dadabhai Naoroji
[D] Pherozeshah Mehta
Answer:
Dr. Rash Bihari Ghosh
The growing differences between the Moderates and the Extremists came at Surat Session 1907,when against the wishes of Extremists who preferred Lala Lajpat Rai to be the President ; Dr. Rash Bihari Ghosh was elected as the Congress President. The Extremists left the Congress. Result was the Congress remained under the control of the Moderates.

11.How many delegates had attended the first session of the Indian National Congress in 1885?
[A] 75
[B] 92
[C] 112
[D] 72
Answer:72
The first session of the Indian National Congress was held from 28-31 december,1885 at Gokul Das Tejpal Sanskrit College, Bombay and was attended by 72 delegates. Its president was Womesh Chandra Banerjee. Indian National Congress formed in 1885 during times of Governor General Lord Dufferin.

12.The first Individual Satyagrahi, Acharya Vinoba Bhave offered Satyagraha in which among the following way?
[A]By not paying taxes
[B]By burning British Flag
[C]By making an antiwar speech
[D]By making a speech against the Viceroy of India
Answer:By making an antiwar speech

13.During British Era, the Duke Memorandum became the basis of which among the following?
[A]Nehru Report
[B]Mont-Ford Reforms
[C]Indian Councils Act 1909
[D]Government of India Act 1935
Answer:Mont-Ford Reforms
Duke Memorandum is associated with Sir William Duke, a member of the English Round Table Group and he had formulated a scheme which eventually became the basis of Joint Report of Montague and Chelmsford.

14.The Battle of Chillianwalla was a part of?
[A]Anglo-Maratha Wars
[B]Anglo-Carnatic Wars
[C]Anglo-French Wars
[D]Anglo-Sikh Wars
Answer:Anglo-Sikh Wars
Battle of Chillianwalla was fought on 13 January 1849 during the Second Anglo-Sikh War. Sikhs fought British in this battle under Shersingh.

15..In which year Jahangir issued the charter to East India Company for establishing the trade establishments in India?
[A]1615
[B]1616
[C]1617
[D]1618
Answer:1617

16.August 9 1925 is known in the Indian History for which of the following incidences?
[A]Chauri Chaura incidence
[B]Kakori Train Robbery
[C]Jallianwallah Bagh Incidence
[D]The seize of Cawnpore
Answer:Kakori Train Robbery

17.In which year, first nationwide elections were held in Afghanistan?
[A]1952
[B]1958
[C]1965
[D]1968
Answer:1965

18.Consider the following features of Government of India act 1935:
1. provision for Federation of India
2. Compulsory accession to Federation of India
3. Partial Reorganization of provinces
Which among the above features hold correct ?
[A]1 only
[B]1 & 2
[C]2 & 3
[D]1 & 3
Answer:1 & 3 the accession to this federation was voluntary

19.Which among the following act provided for the Public Service Commission in India for the first time?
[A]Government of India Act 1919
[B]Indian Councils act 1909
[C]Government of India Act 1935
[D]Government of India act 1858
Answer:
Government of India Act 1919

20.“Increasing association of Indians in every branch of the administration and the gradual development of self-governing institutions with a view to the progressive realization of responsible government in India as an integral part of the British Empire”.
The above statement is known as _____?
[A]Montague declaration
[B]August Offer
[C]Queen Victoria’s Proclamation
[D]None of them
Answer:Montague declaration.
Please note that it was also known as August Declaration but NOT August Offer.

21.Which among the following led to Jallianwalla Bagh massacre?
[A]The Arms Act
[B]The Rowlatt Act
[C]The Public Safety Act
[D]Vernacular Press Act
Answer:The Rowlatt Act

22.The government of India act 1935 provided for:
1. Provincial autonomy
2. Establishment of federal court
3. all India federation at the center
Which among the above hold correct ?
[A]1 only
[B]1 & 2 only
[C]2 & 3 only
[D]all of them
Answer:All of them

23.The Montague-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of _______?
[A]Indian Councils act 1909
[B]The Government of India Act 1919
[C]The Government of India act 1935
[D]The Indian Independence Act 1947
Answer:The Government of India Act 1919

24.Consider the following features in context with the Government of India act 1935:
1. Abolition of Dyarchy in the Governor’s provinces
2. Power of the Governors to veto legislative actions and legislate on their own
3. Abolition of principle of communal representation
Which among the above hold correct ?
[A]1 only
[B]1 & 2
[C]2 & 3
[D]all 1, 2 & 3
Answer:1 & 2.
Third statement is correct because separate electorates were provided for Muslims, Sikh Christians, Anglo Indians etc.

25.Which among the following was NOT a provision of Charter act of 1833?
[A]Trading activities of the East India Company were to be abolished
[B]The designation of the supreme authority was to be changed as the Governor General of India in Council
[C]All law making powers to be conferred on Governor General in council
[D]An Indian to be appointed as law member in the Governor General in Council
Answer:D is incorrect statement.
The member was lord Macaulay and we could not even think of being part of that body

26.Which of the following acts of the British India strengthened the Viceroy’s authority over his executive councils by substituting “portfolio” or departmental system for Corporate Functioning?
[A]Indian Councils Act 1861
[B]Government of India Act 1858
[C]Indian Councils Act 1892
[D]Indian councils Act 1909
Answer:Indian Councils Act 1861

27.After returning from South Africa, which among the following was the first successful satyagraha of Mahatma Gandhi?
[A]Chauri-Chaura
[B]Dandi
[C]Champaran
[D]Bardoli
Answer:Champarany

28.Who among the following was the governor general who followed a spirited “Forward” Policy towards Afghanistan?
[A]Lord Dufferin
[B]Lord Mayo
[C]Lord Elgin
[D]Lord Ellenborough
Answer:Lord Ellenborough

29.Where is located the “Hazur Sahib” Gurudwara, which is one of the five takhts of Sikhism?
[A]Amritsar
[B]Patna
[C]Nanded
[D]Bhatinda
Answer:Nanded
The location of the five Takhts is as follows: Akal Takht, at Amritsar, Keshgar Sahib, at Anandpur Sahib, Punjab, Patna Sahib, at Patna, Hazur Sahib, at Nanded and Damdama Sahib, at Talwandi Sabo, Bhatinda or Bathinda.
30.What was the number of districts in Bombay Presidency?
[A]23
[B]24
[C]25
[D]26
Answer:26

31.Which among the following was also known as Western Presidency in early times of East India Company?
[A]Bombay
[B]Surat
[C]Pune
[D]Panji
Answer:Surat

32.Arrange the following events in their correct chronological order:
1. August Offer
2. Cripps India Mission
3. Bombay Mutiny
4. Quit India Movement
[A]1234
[B]1243
[C]1423
[D]3142
Answer:1243
August Offer 1940, Cripps Mission 1942 (March) , Quit India Movement 1942 (August), Bombay Mutiny 1946

33.Which among the following act was known as the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crime act 1919?
[A]Indian Arms Act
[B]Pitts India Act
[C]Ilbert Bill
[D]Rowlatt Act
Answer:Rowlatt Act
Please note that this act triggered the Rowlatt Satyagraha. Gandhi ji called it a Black act and it took away the Habeas Corpus which forms the basis of Civil Liberties in England.

35.Match the following Correctly :
[A] Governor General of Presidency of Fort William in Bengal (Under Regulating Act 1773) 1. Lord Dalhousie
[B] Governor General of India (Under Charter Act 1833) 2. Lord Minto
[C] Governor General & Viceroy of India (under Indian Councils Act 1858) 3. Lord Cornwallis
[D] Governor General & crown representative (Under Government of India Act 1935) 4. Lord Wavell
[A]A-1, B-2 , C-3, D-4
[B]A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
[C]A-3, B-2 C-2, D-4
[D]A-3, B-1, C-4, D-3
Answer:
A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

36.Who among the following was the Vice president of the Interim Government formed in 1946?
[A]Dr. S Radha Krishnan
[B]Jawahar Lal Nehru
[C]C Rajgopalachari
[D]Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer:Jawahar Lal Nehru

37.Which among the following acts is also known to be a beginning of the parliamentary System in India ?
[A]Indian Councils Act 1892
[B]Indian Councils Act 1904
[C]Indian Councils Act 1909
[D]Government of India Act 1919
Answer:Indian Councils Act 1892
The act was 1892 can be said to be a First step towards the beginning of thparliamentary system in India, where the members are authorized to ask questions. Indian Councils a 1892 can also be said to introduce the principle of representation.

38.Who among the following is known to have started portfolio system in India?
[A]Lord Dalhousie
[B]Lord Caning
[C]Lord Elgin
[D]Sir John Lawrence
Answer:Lord Caning

39.In which year “Poorna Swarajya” resolution was adopted by the Indian National Congress?
[A]1927
[B]1928
[C]1929
[D]1930
Answer:1929

40.Father of renaissance of Western India was__?
[A] B.M. Malabari
[B] M.G. Ranade
[C] R. G. Bhandarkar
[D] K.T. Telang
Answer:M.G. Ranade

41.Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade (1842-1901) was a distinguished Indian scholar, social reformer and author, sometimes called a Father of renaissance of Western India. He was one of the founding members of the Indian National Congress . He established the “Widow Marriage Association” in 1861 to encourage and popularize it Ranade founded the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha in 1870, to represent the Government, the aspiration of the people. Known to be the mentor and political guru of famous freedom fighters Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and Bal Gangadhar Tilak. He was against caste system, untouchability and was a strong supporter of widow-remarriage.

42.Who is often called as Hindu Luther of Northern India ?
[A] Dayanand Saraswati
[B] Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
[C] Radhakant Dev
[D] Keshav Chandra Sen
Answer:Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was a great 19th century Bengali scholar, reformer, writer and philanthropist, whose ideas remain relevant even in modern India. He had devoted his life to improving the status of Hindu widows and encouraging remarriage. The outcome of these efforts was the Hindu Widow Remarriage Act of 1856. That’s why he has come to be called the Hindu Luther of Northern India.

42.Who inspired the young Bengal Movement in the 19th century ?
[A] Ram Tanu Lahiri
[B] Henry Vivian Dorozev
[C] Rasik Kumar Malik
[D] Piyare Chand Mitra
Answer:Henry Vivian Dorozev
Henry Louis Vivian Derozio (1809 –1831) was assistant headmaster of Hindu College, Kolkata, a radical thinker and one of the first Indian educators to disseminate Western learning and science among the young men of Bengal. He constantly encouraged them to think freely, to question and not to accept anything blindly. His teachings inspired the development of the spirit of liberty, equality and freedom. His activities brought about intellectual revolution in Bengal. It was called the Young Bengal Movement and his students, also known as Derozians, were fiery patriots.

43.Who is regarded as “Maker of Modern India”?
[A] M. G. Ranade
[B] Mahatma Gandhi
[C] Keshav Chandra Sen
[D] Ram Mohan Roy
Answer:Ram Mohan Roy
Raja Rammohan Roy has come to be called the ‘Maker of Modern India’. He was the main force behind introduction of the western education and English language in India. He advocated the study of English, Science, Western Medicine and Technology. He spent his money on a college to promote these studies. He was the founder of the Brahmo Samaj and a great leader of social reform. It was as a result of his persistent campaign that the custom of Sati was declared illegal in Bengal in 1829 A.D. By Lord William Bentick. He was the chief advocate of the modern process of education and the scientific learning.

44.Who among the following is known as ‘Mother of Indian Revolution’ ?
[A] Rani Laxmi Bai of Jhansi
[B] Bhikaji Rustam Kama
[C] Annie Besant
[D] Sarojini Naidu
Answer:Bhikaji Rustam Kama
Bhikaiji Rustom Cama,(1861-1936) was an outstanding lady of great courage, fearlessness, integrity, perseverance and passion for freedom, and is considered as the mother of Indian revolution because of her contributions to Indian freedom struggle. She was credited with designing India’s first tricolour flag with green, saffron and red stripes bearing the immortal words – Vande Matram.

45.Which of the following cities was capital of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
[A] Amritsar
[B] Patiala
[C] Lahore
[D] Kapurthala
Answer:Lahore

46.Who were the first to start a joint stock company to trade with India?
[A] Portuguese
[B] Dutch
[C] French
[D] Danish
Answer:Dutch
To maximize profits, the Dutch East India Company established the world’s first stock market in Amsterdam on March 20, 1602, in which investors could speculate on commodity futures and buy stock in the trading company. It was the Dutch East India Company to start a joint stock company to trade with India

47.Who was the first Indian ruler to join the subsidiary Alliance?
[A] The Nawab of Oudh
[B] The Nizam of Hyderabad
[C] Sultan of Madurai
[D] The king of Travancore
Answer:The Nizam of Hyderabad
The Subsidiary Alliance System was used by Lord Wellesley (Governor General of India) to bring the Indian states within the boundary of the British political power. Under this doctrine , The Nizam of Hyderabad , the feeblest of all rulers was the first Indian ruler to accept the Subsidiary Alliance in 1798 A.D and came under the British Protection.

48.The only licensed flag production unit in India in located at which among the following places?
[A]Mysuru
[B]Hubli
[C]Dharwad
[D]Nagpur
Answer:Hubli Karnataka Khadi Gramodyoga Samyukta Sangha in Hubli is the only licensed flag production unit in India.

49.Who among the following had founded the Central Hindu College at Varanasi, which was later converted into Banaras Hindu University?
[A]Madan Mohan Malviya
[B]Annie Besant
[C]Bal Gangadhar Tilak
[D]Jamna Lal Bajaj
Answer:Annie Besant
Madan Mohan Malviya had established BHU in 1915 with the support of some leaders, mainly Annie Besant. She had founded the Central Hindu College in 1898 in Varanasi and this college was later gifted to Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya for the later to get it converted into Banaras Hindu University. Also notable points is that foundation for the main campus of BHU was laid by Lord Hardinge on 4 February 1916, on occasion of Vasant Panchami.

50.The revolt of 1857 was described as a ‘National Rising’ by which of the following political leaders of Britain?
[A] Canning
[B] Gladstone
[C] Palmerstone
[D] Disraeli
Answer:Disraeli
Benjamin Disraeli was leader of Conservative Party and opposition leader in the House of Commons. He described the revolt of 1857 as ‘a national rising.

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