APSC PRELIMS -2013 [Part-2]

51. Panidihing Birds Sanctuary is locate din which of the following districts of Assam?
A. Jorhat
B. Golaghat
C. Sibsagar
D. Dhemaji
Answer: C (Sibsagar district)

52. Arrange the National Parks of Assam correctly in the order of descending size
A. Kaziranga, Manas, Nameri, Dibru Saikhowa, Orang
B. Manas, Kaziranga, Dibru Saikhowa, Nameri, OrangIt is not mistake but CRIME !!!

C. Kaziranga, Manas, Nameri, Orang, Dibru Saikhowa
D. Manas, Dibru Saikhowa, Kaziranga, Orang, Nameri
Answer: B

53. Which of the following cottage industry workers in Assam suffer most due to the paucity of raw material?
A. Brass-smiths
B. Bell metal-smiths
C. Ivory artists
D. Potters and blacksmiths
Answer: C (when it comes to paucity of raw material, ivory industry will be on top).

54. Longloi, Kailajan, Silbheta and Khanbhaman are famous for which of the following resources?
A. Limestone
B. Iron ore
C. Coal
D. Sillimanite
Answer: C (All of them are Coal fields)

55. The Yandaboo Treaty was signed in 1826 between
A. East India Company and the Ahom King
B. East India Company and the Burmese
C. British Crown and the Ahom King
D. British Crown and the Burmese
Answer: B (Yandaboo treaty was signed between East India company and the Burmese).

56. Which of the following state does not have an autonomous district?
A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Meghalaya
C. Mizoram
D. Tripura
Answer: A (Arunachal Pradesh)

57. The construction of Panama Canal in 1914 eliminated the long and hazardous voyage
A. between North and South America
B. in the stormy Atlantic Ocean
C. round the Cape of Good Hope
D. round the stormy Cape Horn
Answer: D (round the stormy Cape Horn)

58. If the Arctic Ice was somehow replaced with dense forest, which of the following situation may arise?
A. It will decelerate Global Warming.
B. It may or may not affect Global warming.
C. It will accelerate Global Warming.
D. It will have no affect on Global Warming.
Answer: C. Arctic ice reflects light from sun. If the ice is replaced by dense forests, which is green and dark, reflectivity will reduce. Though trees will absorb more CO2, lower reflectivity will amplify Global warming. So, option C is correct.

59. The National Children’s Science Congress (NCSC) is an annual event organized with the purpose of
A. Motivating children to take up scientific research on local specific issues
B. demonstrating presentation of children.
C. popularizing science among the people.
D. taking science to the village.
Answer: A

60. The Shanti Sena Force was formed in Assam during the Independence Movement before
the commencement of the
A. Quit India Movement
B. Civil Disobedience Movement
C. Non-Cooperation Movement
D. Ahom Association
Answer: A

61. The Buranjis are
A. autobiographical writings of the Ahom rulers
B. diaries written by the monarchs
C. chronicles
D. none of the above
Answer: C

62. With respect to investment in the renewable energy sector, the first three ranks are held by
A. India, USA, China
B. China, Japan, USA
C. China, USA, India
D. Japan, China, India
Answer: C

63. The hybrid Indo-Greek art form depicting Buddhist themes is known as
A. Tanjore Art
B. Gandhara Art
C. Pahari Art
D. Kangra Art
Answer: B. Gandhara Art

64. The title given by the British to M. K. Gandhi which he surrendered was
A. Hind Kesari
B. Kaiser-e-Hind
C. Rai Bahadur
D. Jewel of India
Answer: B (Kaiser-e-Hind)

65. Under the Mountbatten Plan, a referendum in Assam was to be held in the district of
A. Sibsagar
B. Lakhimpur
C. Goalpara
D. Sylhet
Answer: D (Sylhet)

66. The First Session of the Indian National Congress was presided over by
A. W.C. Banerjee
B. B.R. Ambedkar
C. J.L. Nehru
D. Sardar Vallabbhai Patel
Answer: A (W. C. Banerjee)

67. The last independent Ahom King was
A. Chandrakanta Singha
B. Kamaleswar Singha
C. Jogeswar Singha
D. Purandar Singha
Answer: D (Purandar Singha was the last King of Ahom kingdom).

68. The Constituent Assembly was set up according to the proposal of
A. Mountbatten Plan
B. Wavell Plan
C. Cripps Mission Plan
D. Cabinet Plan
Answer: D

69. The Gandhara School of Art is a contribution of
A. Asoka
B. Harshavardhana
C. Pulakeshin II
D. Kanishka
Answer: D (Kanishka)

70. Sadiya Khowa Gowahin was a
A. Jamindar
B. King
C. frontier officer
D. naval commander
Answer: C (frontier officer in Ahom kingdom)

71. Prachya Sasanavali was edited by
A. Dr. Maheswar Neog
B. Dr. Birinchi Kumar Barua
C. Dr. Surya Kumar Bhuyan
D. Alexander Mackezine
Answer: Dr. Maheswar Neog

72. The king nicknamed as Bhagaraja was
A. Sutiyampha
B. Sutamla
C. Surampha
D. Sunytpha
Answer: C (Surampha was known as Bhagaraja)

73. A pioneer lady responsible for forming the Mrityu Bahini in Assam in connection with the freedom struggle of the country was
A. Chandraprabha Saikiani
B. Pushpalata Das
C. Rani Gaidinlieu
D. None of themselves
Answer: B (Pushpalata Das)

74. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. Civil Disobedience Movement was started based on the issue of salt
B. Dandi March was started from Gandhiji’s Ashram at Wardha
C. Gandhi violated the Salt Laws on April 6, 1930
D. Salt March was widely covered by the European and American press
Answer: B (Dandi March was started from Sabarmati Ashram, not Wardha.

75. Who among the following Indian film personalities received Oscar Award?
A. Subhas Ghai
B. Ramananda Sagar
C. Amitabh Bachchan
D. Bhanu Athaiya
Answer: D (Bhanu Athaiya)

76. Bagarumba is a folk dance performed by
A. Garos
B. Bodos
C. Mishings
D. Rabhas
Answer: B (Bodos)

77. Maidans are
A. elaborate burial tanks of Ahom nobility and kings
B. large fields
C. temples
D. enclosure for sporting activities
Answer: A

78. The Assam Gas Cracker Project at Tengakhat does not have the proposal to produce
A. oxo-alcohols
B. Portland cement and hollow bricks
C. ethylene and propylene
D. polyethylene
Answer: B (Portland cement and hollow bricks)

79. Ibn Batuta, the celebrated traveller, visited Assam in the
A. thirteenth century
B. fourteenth century
C. fifteenth century
D. tenth century
Answer: B (Fourteenth century)

80. Gang Ghar was constructed during the reign of
A. Rudra Singha
B. Rajeswar Singha
C. Pramatta Singha
D. Siva Singha
Answer: C (Pramatta Singha built the current structure of Rang Ghar).

81. The Balkan Plan for fragmentation of India was mooted by
A. W. Churchill
B. M.A. Jinnah
C. Lord Mountbatten
D. V.P. Menon
Answer: C (Lord Mountbatten formulated Balkan Plan or Dickie Bird plan)

82. Which government remained in power in India for the shorted period?
A. Charan Singha Government
B. Chandrashekhar Government
C. Gujral Government
D. Vajpayee Government in 1996
Answer: D (Atal Bihari Vajpayee’s government in 1966)

83. When was Assam Provincial Congress formed?
A. 1920
B. 1921
C. 1922
D. 1923
Answer: B (Assam Provincial Congress was formed in the year 1921. Question already answered on Assams.info/answers)

84. Gandhiji visited Assam for the first time in connection with the National Freedom Movement in the year
A. 1920
B, 1921
C. 1935
D. 1926
Answer: B (In 1921 Gandhiji came to Assam for the first time. More information about his all visits available here)

85. In the series 65, 76, 78, 95, 91, 114, 104, 133, … …. the two missing terms are
A. 152, 117
B. 117, 152
C. 116, 150
D. 150, 116
Answer: B (117, 152)

86. A friend of mine comes to me on every Sunday. For the first time, he came at 12:30, on the next occasion at 1:20, then at 2:30, and next at 4:00. Afterwards he will come to me at
A. 5:20
B. 6:20
C. 5:30
D. 5:50
Answer: D (5:50)

87. Find out the odd combination out of the following:
A. Japan, Singapore, Australia, England
B. Bhutan, Tibet, Bangladesh, Afghanistan
C. Mumbai, Kochi, Goa, Chennai
D. Guwahati, Ranchi, Patna, Chandigarh
Answer: A (Japan, Singapore, Australia, England). Option C and D contains names of cities. But there’s no third option with name of cities. So, we can reject that angle. But if you consider continents, B, C & D are related to Asia. But option A is a mixture of Asia, Europe, Australia. So, A seems to be the correct answer.

88. The author of Asomiya Sahityar Buranji is
A. Nathan Brown
B. Jatindranath Duwara
C. Devendranath Bezbarua
D. Gunabhiram Barua

Answer: C (Devendranath Bezbarua)

89. The Assam region was separated from the Bengal Presidency in
A. 1874
B. 1889
C. 1861
D. 1826
Answer: A (Assam separated from Bengal Presidency in 1874 and Chief Commissionership of Assam was formed. We already answered that on assams.info/answers)

90. Two of the given three circles have 5 numbers – one inside and four outside. The four outer numbers give the inner number according to some rule. Find the missing number from given alternatives: 7              6               6
3 29 5     5 39 3        7 ? 3
2              4               5 A. 49
B. 51
C. 59
D. 21
Answer:  B (51. Top number x Bottom number + Right number x Left number)

91. If the first day of a non-leap year falls on Friday, what would be the last day of the year?
A. Saturday
B. Monday
C. Friday
D. Tuesday
Answer: C (Friday)

92. The illustration work of the medieval Assamese text Hasthividyarnava was done by
A. Suryakhari Daibaigya
B. Sukumar Borkaith
C. Dibar and Dosai
D. Rama Saraswati
Answer: C. Sukumar Borkath wrote Hastividyarnava. But illustration work was done by Dilbor and Dohai

93. Gohain Kamal Ali from Koch Behar to Narayanpur was constructed during the reign of
A. Nara Narayan
B. Parikshit Narayan
C. Viswa Singha
D. Raghu Dev
Answer: A (Nara Narayan)

94. The first Ahom Monarch to assume the Hindu title Swarganarayan’ was
A. Siva Singha
B. Pratap Singha
C. Jaydhwaj Singha
D. Suhungmung
Answer: D (Swarganarayan title was assumed by Ahom King Suhungmung).

95.The British-made aerodrome at Barnagar, Sarbhog was set ablaze under the leadership of Brajanath Sarma in
A. August 1942
B. August 1842
C. September 1942
D. August 1941
Answer: A (August 1942)

96. The title of the overall administrative head of Lower Assam region during the Ahom Rule was
A. Barkhukan
B. Rajkhowa
C. Borpatragohain
D. Khongea Barua
Answer: A (Borphukan was the administrative head of Lower Assam)

97. The first rebellion against the British rule in Assam in 1828 was led by
A. Piyali Phukan
B. Maniram Dewan
C. Gomdhar Konwar
D. Piyali Barua
Answer: C (Gomdhar Konwar was the first Assamese to lead a rebellion against British)

98. Which district was separated from Assam and given to Pakistan in 1947?
A. Chittagong
B. Khulna
C. Sylhet
D. Sholashahar
Answer: C (Sylhet)

99. Four persons P, Q, R and S are standing in a row as per their size. Among them, P is taller than Q and S is taller than P but S is smaller than R. Starting from the tallest one, what is the order in the row?
A. RSPQ
B. PQRS
C. SRQP
D. QPSR
Answer: A (RSPQ)

100. Who is the author of the book, India Against Itself?
A. Dr. Hiren Gohain
B. Dr. Mamoni Roysom Goswami
C. Homen Borgohain
D. Dr. Sanjib Barua
Answer: D (Dr. Sanjib Barua wrote the book India against itself)

APSC 2013 Prelims [Part-1]

APSC 2013 Prelims General Studies.

Question Paper (Part I): 1. Which one of the following is not included in the state list in the constitution of India?
A. Criminal Procedure Code
B. Police
C. Law and order
D. Prison
Answer: A (Criminal Procedure Code)

2. The Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in
A. Creation and abolition of States
B. Approving a proclamation of emergency
C. the election of the Vice President
D. authorizing Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State list
Answer: D (Rajya Sabha can authorize Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State list)

3. Which one of the following is not a part of the Directive Principles of the State Policy?
A. Right against exploitation
B. Right to work
C. Right to education
D. Right to public assistance in the case of unemployment
Answer: A (Right against exploitation)

4. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with
A. administration of OBC/MOBC population
B. Stat reorganization based on language
C. the provisions for administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
D. welfare of the SC/ST population
Answer: C (6th schedule is about tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and  Mizoram)

5. Which one of the following words was not originally included in the Preamble to the  Constitution of India?
A. Sovereign
B. Socialist
C. Secular
D. Republic
Answer: C

6. The President of India does not deny his consent to a Money Bill because
A. it is urgent in nature
B. it is initiated by the Finance Minister
C. it is initiated by the Finance Minister on the recommendation of the President
D. it is initiated in the Lok Sabha
Answer: C ( Money bill is initiated by the Finance Minister on the recommendation of the President)

7. When did the Constituent Assembly of India have its first meeting?
A. December 10, 1946
B. July 18, 1947
C. August 14, 1947
D. August 15, 1947
Answer: A (December 10, 1946)

8. Fundamental Duties were appended  to the constitution of India by the 42nd amendment on the recommendation of
A. Swarn Singh Committee
B. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Committee
C. K. C. Pant Committee
D. C. D. Deshmukh Committee
Answer: A

9. Ashok Mehta Committee stated that
A. the Zila Parishad should be made responsible for planning at the district level
B. in all States, there shall be a Gram Sabha
C. periodic elections are to be held
D. one-third of the total seats should be reserved for women
Answer: A (Zilla parishad is responsible for planning at the district level)

10. The division of power between Centre and States is contained in the Constitution of India in the
A. Third Schedule
B. Fifth Schedule
C. Seventh Schedule
D. Eighth Schedule
Answer: C (7th schedule of constitution of India)

11. Which of the following is the legal document created in 1947 that allowed the Princely states to join either India or Pakistan?
A. The Act of Accession, 1947
B. Instrument for Accession
C. Legal Document for Accession
D. None of the above
Answer: B (Instrument of accession)

12. During national emergency, the President can suspend the judicial enforcement of the Fundamental Rights except the two Articles which are
A. 15, 16
B. 18, 19
C. 20, 21
D. 32, 33
Answer: C

13. Arrange the following President of India in the correct chronological sequence:
I) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
II) Dr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
III) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
IV) Giani Zail Singh A. II, III, IV, I
B. IV, II, III, I
C. III, II, IV, I
D. II, IV, III, I
Answer: A

14. Which of the following is not a Money Bill?
A. Budget
B. Appropriation Bill
C. Bill seeking Vote on Account
D. Finance Bill
Answer: A

15. The term secular was added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India be the
A. 40th Amendment
B. 41st Amendment
C. 42nd Amendment
D. 43rd Amendment
Answer: C (42nd Amendment)

16. Which Article of the Indian Constitution has empowered the parliament to regulate the citizenship matters?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 11
Answer: D (Article 11 of Indian Constitution empowers parliament to regulate citizenship matters in in the country)

17. GSAT-7, the first Indian satellite for defense purpose, was launched from
A. Sriharikota
B. Kourou
C. Baikanour
D. Cape Canaveral
Answer: B (Kourou in French Guiana)

18. UN in its report World Population Prospects, 2012 has noted that Indian will be the world’s largest populated country, leaving behind China, by the year
A. 2022
B. 2028
C. 2035
D. 2050
Answer: B (2028)

19. The popular uprising in Assam known as Patharughat Battle took place in the year
A. 1861
B. 1862
C. 1893
D. 1894
Answer: D (Patharughator Ron took place in the year 1894)

20. In which year, Kaziranga wildlife Sanctuary was elevated to a National Park?
A. 1974
B. 1975
C. 1976
D. 1977
Answer: A (Kaziranga became a national park in 1974)

21. Who was the President of Swaraj Party formed in Assam during the Freedom Movement?
A. Maniram Dewan
B. Vishnuram Medhi
C. Gopinath Bordoloi
D. Tarun Ram Phukan
Answer: D (Tarun Ram Phukan formed Swaraj Party in Assam)

22. Name of the Submarine which was destroyed in a major accident in 2013 is
A. INS Sindhurakshak
B. INS Shalki
C. INS Godavari
D. INS Yamuna
Answer: A (INS Sinshurakshak)

23. The famous musician Zubin Mehta was in news recently which had an Indian connection because
A. of his refusal to perform in Israel
B. he is a foreign citizen of Indian origin
C. of a concert in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir
D. None of the above
Answer: C (Zubin Mehta’s concert in Srinagar was opposed by separatists led by Syed Ali Shah Geelani protested, saying the concert was an attempt to legitimise India’s rule in the disputed region.)

24. The ship MV Bingo was drowned due to cyclone Phailin on October 12, 2013. The 18 member crew on board was rescued after 40 hours by
A. Dornier Aircraft CG 970
B. Dornier Aircraft CG 790
C. Dornier Aircraft CG 079
D. Boeing 777
Answer: B (Dornier Aircraft CG 790 of Indian coast guard rescued the crew of drowned ship MV Bingo)
25. Which of the following has announced its plan to launch the world’s largest solar sail in 2014?
A. NASA
B. ISRO
C. European Space Agency
D. Japanese Space Agency
Answer: A (NASA to launch as world’s largest solar sail till date in 2014)
26. Female literacy rate in India as per the Census Data, 2011 stands at
A. 64.6%
B. 70.3%
C. 62.5%
D. 68.2%
Answer: A (As per India Census 2011 data, female literacy rate in India is 64.6%) 27. In the last one decade, which among the following sectors has attracted the highest foreign direct investment inflows into india?
A. Chemicals other than fertilizers
B. Service Sector
C. Food processing
D. Telecommunication
Answer: B. As per official GOI data, FDI contribution is highest in Service Sector. 28. Which Indian economist helped create the United Nations Human Development Index?
A. Jagdish Bhagawati
B. Amartya Sen
C. Arvind Panagariya
D. Ashok Desai
Answer: B (Amartya Sen)
29. In India, which one among the following formulates the fiscal policy?
A. The planning Commission
B. The ministry of finance
C. The finance commission
D. The reserve bank of India
Answer: C ( The Ministry of Finance)
30. The committee that recommended abolition of tax rebate under Section 88 is
A. Chelliah Committee
B. Kelkar Committee
C. Shome Committee
D. None of the above
Answer: B (Kelkar Committee recommended abolition of tax rebate under Section 88)

31. VAT is imposed
A. Directly on consumer
B. on the first stage of production
C. on the final stage of production
D. on all stages between production and final sale
Answer: D (VAT is imposed in all stages from production to sale)
32. SEBI is a/an
A. statutory body
B. advisory body
C. constitutional body
D. non-statutory body
Answer: A (SEBI is now a statutory body) 33. In Indiam inflation is measured on the basis of
A. Consumer Price Index
B. Wholesale price Index
C. Human Development Index
D. Market Forces
Answer: B (Wholesale Price Index)
34. The terra-cotta industry in Assam has developed in
A. Goalpara District
B. Barak Valley
C. Dhubri District
D. Tinsukia District
Answer: C (Dhubri District)
35. A rise in the general price level may be caused by
A. a decrease in the aggregate level of output
B. an increase in the effective demand
C. an increase in the supply of money
D. (A) and (c) only
Answer: D
36. In single-brand retail, the Government of India has raised FDI limit through FIPB from 49% to
A. 51%
B. 74%
C. 100%
D. None of the above
Answer: C (FDI in single-brand retail has been increased to 100%)
37. The recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission have been operational for the period
A. 2010-2015
B. 2011-2016
C. 2012-2017
D. None of the above
Answer: A (2010-2015)
38. Which of the following statements is correct for the Planning Commission of India?
A. It is not defined in the Indian Constitution.
B. Members and the Vice Chairman do not have fixed working duration
C. Its members do not require any minimum educational qualification
D. All of the above
Answer: D
39. Decentralized planning on the basis of Panchayati Raj institutions was recommended by
A. Ashok Mehta Committee
B. Gadgil Committee
C. Mahalanobis Committee
D. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Answer: D (Balwant Rai Mehta Committee)
40. The minimum Needs Programme was introduced in the
A. Fourth Plan
B. Fifth Plan
C. Sixth Plan
D. Seventh Plan
Answer: B. Minimum Needs Programme was introduced in Fifth Five Year Plan(1974–78)
41. There was a plan holiday in India during
A. 1955-1958
B. 1961-1964
C. 1971-1974
D. None of the above
Answer: D ( Plan holiday was in 1966-1969).
42. What was set up in 1950 for conducting large-scale surveys to meet the data needs of the country for the estimation of the national income and related aggregates?
A. The Planning Commission
B. The National Sample Survey
C. The Bureau of Industrial Costs
D. The Central Statistical Organization
Answer: B
43. Which of the following is not correct in respect of the term disinvestment?
A. Reduction of public debt
B. A process of privatization
C. Release of large amounts of public resources locked up in non-strategic public sector enterprise
D. Revival of public sector enterprises
Answer: A
44. Which is the new tax regime proposed to be introduced in the country?
A. GST (Goods Services Tax)
B. VAT (Value Added Tax)
C. Agricultural Income Tax
D. Central Excise
Answer: A (GST)
45. The first systematic attempt of economic planning in India was made in the year
A. 1934
B. 1937
C. 1943
D. 1944
Answer:  A (M. Visvesvaraya attempted economic planning in 1934)
46. The minimum amount of calorie-based definition of poverty in India was accepted in them
A. Fourth Plan
B. Fifth Plan
C. Sixth Plan
D. Seventh Plan
Answer: C (Sixth Plan)
47. Under decentralized planning, a planning committee is set up at which level?
A. Block
B. Subdivision
C. District
D. Gaon Panchayat
Answer: C
48. Which is the largest plain of the world?
A. Siberian Plain
B. Indo-Gangatic Plain
C. The Prairies
D. The Steppe Land
Answer: A (Siberian Plain)
49.How much percent of the Indian landmass is covered by the State of Assam?
A. 3.39%
B. 2.39%
C. 4.39%
D. 2.93%
Answer:  B
50. Which of the following seas is without a coastline?
A. Black Sea
B. Mediterranean sea
C. Sargasso sea
D. Sea of Azov
Answer: C (Sargasso sea)

Mock For Upcoming APSC(Indian Art and Culture)

1.The initials A.R. in the name of the famous music composer A.R.Rehman stands for
(a) Abdur Rasool
(b) Anjaneyulu Ramakant
(c) Aravindan Raja
(d) Allah Rakha
Answer: Allah Rakha

2.Kathak is classical dance of
(a) Kerala
(b) North India
(c) Manipur
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: North India

3.With which one of the following dance form is Madhavi Mudgal associated?
(a) Bharat Natyam
(b) Kathakali
(c) Kathak
(d) Odissi
Answer: Odissi

4.Yamini Krishnamurti is famous for which form of dance ?
(a) Kuchipudi
(b) Kathak
(c) Manipuri
(d) Bharatnatyam
Answer: Bharatnatyam

5.Birju Maharaj is famous for which form of dance ?
(a) Kathak
(b) Bharatnatyam
(c) Manipuri
(d) Kuchipudi
Answer: Kathak

6.Sonal Mansingh is famous for which form of dance ?
(a) Bharatnatyam
(b) Manipuri
(c) Kuchipudi
(d) Kathak
Answer: Manipuri

7.Amjad Ali Khan is famous for which Musical Instrument?
(a) Violin
(b) Tabla
(c) Flute
(d) Sarod
Answer: Sarod

8.Ali Akbar Khan is famous for which Musical Instrument?
(a) Flute
(b) Veena
(c) Sitar
(d) Sarod
Answer: Sarod

9.Alla Rakha Khan is famous for which Musical Instrument?
(a) Flute
(b) Sarod
(c) Sitar
(d) Tabla
Answer: Tabla

10.Zakir Hussain is famous for which Musical Instrument?
(a) Sitar
(b) Veena
(c) Tabla
(d) Veena
Answer: Tabla

11.M. S. Gopala krishnan is famous for which Musical Instrument?
(a) Veena
(b) Tabla
(c) Violin
(d) Sarod
Answer: Violin

12.Bismillah Khan is famous for which Musical Instrument?
(a) Veena
(b) Shehnal
(c) Sitar
(d) Flute
Answer: Shehnal

13.Ravi Shankar is famous for which Musical Instrument?
(a) Sitar
(b) Tabla
(c) Shehnal
(d) Veena
Answer: Sitar

14.Hari Prasad Chaurasia is famous for which Musical Instrument?
(a) Sitar
(b) Sarod
(c) Sitar
(d) Flute
Answer: Flute

15.Shubha Mudgal is famous vocalist for which form of Classical Music?
(a) Carnatic
(b) Hindustani
(c) Thumri
(d) Dhrupad
Answer: Hindustani

16.Bheemsen Joshi is famous vocalist for which form of Classical Music?
(a) Hindustani
(b) Thumri
(c) Carnatic
(d) Quwwali
Answer: Hindustani

17.Pandit Jasraj is famous vocalist for which form of Classical Music?
(a) Dhrupad
(b) Quwwali
(c) Hindustani
(d) Thumri
Answer: Hindustani

18.M. S. Subbalakshmi is famous vocalist for which form of Classical Music?
(a) Hindustani
(b) Carnatic
(c) Quwwali
(d) Dhrupad
Answer: Carnatic

19.Ustad Bade Ghulam Ali Khan is famous vocalist for which form of Classical Music?
(a) Thumri
(b) Dhrupad
(c) Quwwali
(d) Carnatic
Answer: Thumri

20.Compact discs, (according to the original CD specifications) hold how many minutes of music?
(a) 74 mins
(b) 90 mins
(c) 56 mins
(d) 60 mins
Answer: 74 mins

21.What type of musical instrument is a goombay?
(a) Symbols
(b) Drum
(c) Guitar
(d) Piano
Answer: Drum

22.Which is the International Dance?
(a) Romantic Dance
(b) Bibhu
(c) Odissi
(d) Chau
Answer: Chau

23.Samba dance is famous in
(a) Brazil
(b) Peru
(c) Argentina
(d) Mexico
Answer: Brazil

24.To which state does the Sattriya dance belong?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Manipur
(c) Assam
(d) Meghalaya
Answer: Assam

25.In music how many quavers equal a crotchet?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 4
Answer: 2

26.Country whose National Anthem has only music not words is
(a) India
(b) Bahrain
(c) Germany
(d) Spain
Answer: Bahrain

27.Rouff is a folk dance. It has its origin in ?
(a) Assam
(b) Mizoram
(c) Kashmir
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Answer: Kashmir

28.Bharatnatyam is a dance form of
(a) Jandk
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: Tamil Nadu

29.A Passion For Dance was wirtten by
(a) Rukmani Dev Arundale
(b) Dr. Padma Subramanyam
(c) Sonal Man Singh
(d) Yamini Krishnamurthy
Answer: Yamini Krishnamurthy

30.Dance patterns considered sacred to Lord Shiva are in
(a) Bharatanatyam and Kathakali
(b) Kathak and Bharatanatyam
(c) Bharatanatyam and Mohiniyattam
(d) Oddissi and Bharatanatyam
Answer: Bharatanatyam and Mohiniyattam

31.Rouff is a folk dance. It has its origin in ?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Kashmir
Answer: Kashmir

32.The Kagyat Dance is typical of
(a) Nagaland
(b) Tripura
(c) Manipur
(d) Sikkim
Answer: Sikkim

33.Which is the Rajasthani dance that is performed by women by carrying earthen pots on their heads?
(a) Raika
(b) Tera Tali
(c) Panihari
(d) Suisini
Answer: Panihari

34.Which of the following folk dances is performed by women in Punjab?
(a) Garbha
(b) Giddha
(c) Ghero
(d) Goncha
Answer: Giddha

35.Tamasha or Lalvani is the folk dance of which Indian State?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Assam
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: Maharashtra

36.Which of these dances are performed on the edge of brass plates ?
(a) Bharatnatyam
(b) Kuchipudi
(c) Kathakali
(d) Manipuri
Answer: Kuchipudi

37.Natya tarangini is a school for which Indian dance form?
(a) Bharatnatyam
(b) Kathakali
(c) Kuchipudi
(d) Oddissi
Answer: Kuchipudi

38.Karnataka is famous for the dance form
(a) Bharatanatyam
(b) Kathakali
(c) Yakshagana
(d) Kuchupudi
Answer: Yakshagana

39.Kuchipudi dance originated in -
(a) Karnataka
(b) Kerala
(c) Orissa
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: Andhra Pradesh

40.Bharat Natyam is dance of
(a) Punjab
(b) Bihar
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Assam
Answer: Tamil Nadu

41.Bihu is dance of
(a) Bihar
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Assam
(d) Punjab
Answer: Assam

42.Bhangra is dance of
(a) Gujarat
(b) Punjab
(c) Bihar
(d) Uttarakhand
Answer: Punjab

43.Chhau is dance of
(a) Karnataka
(b) Bihar
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Gujarat
Answer: Bihar

44.Garhwali is dance of
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Karnataka
(d) Uttarakhand
Answer: Uttarakhand

45.Garba is dance of
(a) Gujarat
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Rajasthan
Answer: Gujarat

46.Hattari is dance of
(a) Karnataka
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Kerala
Answer: Karnataka

47.Kathak is dance of
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Mizoram
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Kerala
Answer: Rajasthan
48.Kathakali is dance of
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Mizoram
Answer: Kerala
49.Kutchipudi is dance of
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Mizoram
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: Andhra Pradesh
50.Khantumm is dance of
(a) Mizoram
(b) Kerala
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Meghalaya
Answer: Mizoram
51.Karma is dance of
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Goa
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Kerala
Answer: Madhya Pradesh
52.Laho is dance of
(a) Kerala
(b) Manipur
(c) Goa
(d) Meghalaya
Answer: Meghalaya
53.Mohiniattam is dance of
(a) Goa
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Manipur
(d) Kerala
Answer: Kerala
54.Mando is dance of
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Goa
(d) Manipur
Answer: Goa
55.Manipuri is dance of
(a) Manipur
(b) Orissa
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Bihar
Answer: Manipur
56.Nati is dance of
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Jammu Kashmir
(c) Bihar
(d) Orissa
Answer: Himachal Pradesh
57.Nat-Natin is dance of
(a) Jammu Kashmir
(b) Karnataka
(c) Bihar
(d) Orissa
Answer: Bihar

58.Yakshagan is dance of
(a) Karnataka
(b) Punjab
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Assam
Answer: Karnataka

59.Lezin dance is popular in which State?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Assam
Answer: Maharashtra

60.Gafa dance is popular in which State?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Haryana
(d) J K
Answer: Maharashtra

61.Bala Saraswati is famous for which form of dance ?
(a) Bharatnatyam
(b) Kuchipudi
(c) Kathak
(d) Manipuri
Answer: Bharatnatyam

62.Sonal Mansingh is famous for which form of dance ?
(a) Bharatnatyam
(b) Manipuri
(c) Kathak
(d) Kuchipudi
Answer: Bharatnatyam

63.Kathak, Nautanki, Jhora and Kajri are the important dances of
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Chattisgarh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Uttaranchal
Answer: Uttar Pradesh

64.Kathakali, Mohiniatam and Ottam are the famous dances of
(a) Tamil Naidu
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Orrissa
Answer: Kerala

65.The dance in Himachal Pradesh, performed indoor, solo or duet, especially when life comes to a standstill during cold winter is
(a) Munzra
(b) Rouf
(c) Luddi Dance
(d) Giddha parhaun
Answer: Munzra

66.The dance performed by women to invoke rain in Bihar is
(a) Faguna or Fog
(b) Bihu
(c) Purbi
(d) Jata Jatin
Answer: Jata Jatin

67.Which is a post-harvest folk dance in Assam?
(a) Ojapali
(b) None of them
(c) Ankia Nat
(d) Bihu
Answer: Bihu

68.Which of the following dances belong to Meghalaya?

(a) Naga dance and Manipur
(b) None of them
(c) Wangala laho
(d) Chiraw and kullan
Answer: Wangala laho

69.Which of the following dances of India is based upon the principle of Natyashastra?
(a) Odissi
(b) None of them
(c) Bharatnatyam
(d) Both are correct
Answer: Both are correct
     
AKM NOZMUL ISLAM
Educator

Answer Key :UPSC -2017[Environment and Ecology ]

1)The term M-STRIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
(d) Security of National Highways

National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is planning to implement a new computerized tiger monitoring protocol in all tiger reserves of the country known as Monitoring System for Tiger, Intensive Patrolling and Ecological Status (MSTrIPES).

2)Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites ?
(a) Corbett National Park
(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Sariska National Park

3)In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply ?
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.

ShankarIAS Environment Book Page 189

4)According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?
1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

5)If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b) Chambal River
(c) Pulicat Lake
(d) Deepor Beel

6)From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?
(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
(b) Nallamala Forest
(c) Nagarhole National Park
(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

NCERT Class 11: India- Physical Geography

7)Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

ShankarIAS Environment Book Page 308

8)Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?
1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is right (by common knowledge) but for the sake of reference- NCERT Class 12 biology page 30! This eliminates “B”.
Second statement should be wrong because of the extreme word “drastic“. This eliminates “D”. Besides I’m unable to find any specific reference that mentions linkage between butterfly population vs fungus infection.
Birds and spiders tend to prey on butterflies (by common knowledge) but again for sake of reference: this google book, so statement 3 is a possible outcome.
Hence answer “C”: 1 and 3 only.

9)Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for
(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions

NCERT Class 11 Chemistry: Ch. 14-Environmental Chemistry, page 407

10)In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?

It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter :12

11)In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

ShankarIAS Environment Book Page 222

12) It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?

Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

13)With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

14)Consider the following statements:
1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is aunique initiative of G20 group of countries.
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15)Consider the following statements :
The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at
1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

16) What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ (NAM) scheme?
1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17)Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture? ‎
‎1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land ‎
‎2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field ‎
‎3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field ‎
Select the correct answer using the code given below : ‎

A) 1 and 2 only‎
B) 3 only ‎
C) 1 and 3 only
D) ‎1, 2 and 3

18)What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT) Technology?
(a) Production of biolarvicides
(b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
(c) Reproductive cloning of animals
(d) Production of organisms free of diseases

19)With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of ‘genome sequencing’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?
1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Indian Geography

1. Great Indian Peninsula ends in Indian Ocean with ____________ being its southernmost tip.

a.) Cape Comorin
b.) Cape town
c.) Capricorn
d.) Tropic of Cancer

2. Which mountains bound India to the north of Kashmir?

a.) Muztagh Ata
b.) Aghil
c.) Kunlun
d.) All the above

3. Which mountains lie to the east side of Himachal Pradesh and northern side of Uttarakhand?

a.) Zaskar
b.) Kunlun
c.) Himalayas
d.) Aghil

4. India is separated from Srilanka by –

a.) Gulf of Mannar
b.) Palk Strait
c.) Both a and b
d.) None of the above

5. Which hills join the chain of Mizo and Arakan Hills running north-south?

a.) Garo
b.) Khasi
c.) Jaintia and Naga
d.) All the above

6. Indo-Gangetic plains are formed by the basins of following river –

a.) The Indus
b.) The Ganges
c.) The Brahmaputra
d.) All the above

7. River Bhagirathi arises at Gaumukh from which Glacier?

a.) Gangotri
b.) Yamunotri
c.) Alkapur
d.) Siachen

8. Which is the second largest basin in India?

a.) Gangetic
b.) Godavari
c.) Krishna
d.) Narmada

9. Which river system is found in the south of India?

a.) Tapti
b.) Pennar
c.) Brahamputra
d.) Suryakund

10. Which of the following is a Salt Lake in Rajasthan?

a.) Sambhar
b.) Luni
c.) Betwa
d.) Chambal

ANSWER
1. a
2. d
3. a
4. c
5. d
6. d
7. a
8. b
9. b
10. a.

NTSE SAT (History)/ CTET(Social Studies)

NTSE SAT(History)/ CTET(Social Studies).

Q1: The most important text of Vedic Mathematics is:

(a) Atharva veda
(b) Sulva Sutras
(c) Sapta Sindhava
(d) Satapat Brahaman

Q2: Bengal became independent of imperial control after Aurangzeb’s death. Who among the following were its first rulers?

(a) Alivardi Khan
(b) Haider Jang
(c) Murshid Quli Khan
(d) Sirajudullah 

Q3(CTET Jan 2012): The division of the period of Indian History into 'Ancient', 'Medieval', and 'Modern' also has problems. Which of the following is one of the problems in it ?

(a) The concept has been borrowed from the West where Modern period was associated with science, reason, democracy, liberty and equality.
(b) Indian History seems to have clear lines of distinction between 'Ancient', and 'Medieval', and  'Medieval' and 'Modern' period
(c) Tripartite division . reflects gradual growth of the Indian State
(d) Three periods are insufficient to describe Indian History

Q4: The first Muslim ruler to introduce the system of price control was

(a) Iltutmish
(b) Jalaluddin Khalji
(c) Mullammad-bin-Tughlaq
(d) Alauddin Khalji

Q5(CTET Jan 2012): Pietra dura was a

(a) Style of decoration of buildings
(b) Role of succession
(c) Greek god
(d) Metallurgy technology

Q6(NTSE 2011): Mahatma Gandhi called off the Non-cooperation Movement after the Chauri Chaura incident because:
(a) he intended to avoid probable arrest
(b) Moplah peasants in Kerala opposed him.
(c) the movement had turned violent.
(d) of growing opposition to his leadership within Congress.

Q7: Which one of the following European trading groups first established its factory at Surat?
(a) The Portuguese
(b) The Dutch
(c) The English
(d) The French

Q8: Amir Khusrau was the famous poet in the court of :
(a) Akbar
(b) Shahjahan
(c) Alauddin Khalji
(d) Sikandar Lodhi

Q9: Who among the following advocated  ‘Gurilla war’ strategy:

(a) Shivaji
(b) Prithvi Raj 
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) Babar

Q10(CTET Jan 2012): Which of the following combinations of kingdoms was engaged in tripartite struggle?
(a) Chola, Rashtrakuta, Pala
(b) Pala, Pallava, Rashtrakuta
(c) Rashtrakuta, Pala, Gurjar-Pratihara
(d) Pala, Chola, Gurjar-Pratihara

Q11(NTSE 2010): If you lived in Agra during Shahjahan’s time what would you witness the most?
(a) Rebellion of Rajputs
(b) A lot of construction activity
(c) Peasant rebellions
(d) Flourishing banking activities

Q12(CTET Jan 2012): Muhammad-Bin-Tughlaq shifted his capital from Delhi to Daulatabad

(a) to escape from Mongols
(b) to punish Southern rulers
(c) to control his empire effectively as Daulatabad was centrally located
(d) as he was not getting enough revenue from North India 

Q13: Sirajuddaula lost his Mansab because of

(a) His weak army
(b) His religious army
(c) Widespread economic distress
(d) Intrigues and treachery at home

Q14: Hoysala monuments are found at
(a) Hampi
(b) Halebid
(c) Mysore
(d) Dharwar

Q15(CTET Jan 2012): Tanti, Momin and Devangs communities were engaged in
(a) Leather works
(b) Weaving
(c) Wood works
(d) Pottery making

Q16(CTET Jan 2012): Bidri was
(a) a type of copperware produced in Bidar
(b) an inlay work in copper and silver done by the artisans of Bidar
(c) a type of silk textile produced in Bidar
(d) a type of cotton textile produced in Bidar

Q17:  Which among the following causes was NOT the reason for the downfall of the Mughal empire?
(a) The Mansabdari system had corrupted and demoralized the Mughal Army
(b) The Mughal nobility had degenerated
(c) The empire had financial crisis
(d) Aurangzeb had divided the empire among his sons

Q18(NTSE 2010): Surat and Masulipatnam were important trading towns in 17th century. However in the 18th century they lost their importance. Which of the following was NOT responsible for their decline?

(a) Loss of market and productivity because of the decline of the Mughal Empire.
(b) Control of sea-routes by the Portugese and competition from Bombay.
(c) Fierce competition among various trading groups like Golconda nobles, Persian merchants etc.
(d) Shifting of company trade centres to Bombay, Calcutta and Madras.

Answers:
1: (b) Sulva Sutras
2: (c) Murshid Quli Khan
3: (a) The concept has been borrowed from the West where Modern period was associated with science, reason, democracy, liberty and equality.
4: (d) Alauddin Khalji
5: (a) Style of decoration of buildings
6: (c) the movement had turned violent.
7: (c) The English
8: (c) Alauddin Khalji
9: (a) Shivaji
10: (c) Rashtrakuta, Pala, Gurjar-Pratihara
11: (b) A lot of construction activity
12: (c) to control his empire effectively as Daulatabad was centrally located
13: (d) Intrigues and treachery at home
14: (b) Halebid
15: (b) Weaving
16: (b) an inlay work in copper and silver done by the artisans of Bidar
17: (d) Aurangzeb had divided the empire among his sons
18: (c) Fierce competition among various trading groups like Golconda nobles, Persian merchants etc.

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) Feb 2016 (Class I-V)

Child Development and Pedagogy

Q1: Children are most creative when they participate in an activity?

(a) to escape their teacher scolding
(b) under stress to do well in front of others
(c) out of interest
(d) for rewards

Q2: Child-centered pedagogy means

(a) giving moral education to the children
(b) asking the children to follow and imitate the teacher
(c) giving primacy to children's voices and their active participation
(d) letting the children be totally free

Q3: Most classrooms in India are multi-lingual and this needs to be seen as _______ by the teacher.

(a) a bother
(b) a problem
(c) a resource
(d) an obstacle

Q4: Why do individuals differ from one another?

(a) Because of the impact of the environment.
(b) Due to inborn characteristics
(c) Due to interplay between heredity and environment
(d) Because each individual has received a different gene set from his/her parents.

Q5: Learning

(a) is not affected by a learner's emotions
(b) has very little connection with emotions
(c) is independent of learner's emotions
(d) is influenced by learner's emotions

Q6: A child says "Clothes dry faster in the Sun". She is showing an understanding of

(a) symbolic thoughts
(b) egocentric thinking
(c) cause and effect
(d) reversible thinking

Q7: According to Vygotsky, children learn

(a) when reinforcement is offered
(b) by maturation
(c) by imitation
(d) by interacting with adults and peers

Q8: When students are given an opportunity to discuss a problem in groups, their learning curve

(a) becomes better
(b) remains stable
(c) declines
(d) remains the same

Q9: In the context of a primary school classroom what does active engagement mean?

(a) Memorising, Recall and Reciting
(b) Imitating and copying the teacher
(c) Enquiry, Questioning and Debate
(d) Copying answers given by the teacher

Q10: Early childhood is _________ period for language development.

(a) a not so significant
(b) an unimportant
(c) a sensitive
(d) a neutral

Answers:
1: (c) out of interest
2: (c) giving primacy to children's voices and their active participation
3: (c) a resource
4: (c) Due to interplay between heredity and environment
5: (d) is influenced by learner's emotions
6: (c) cause and effect
7: (d) by interacting with adults and peers
8: (a) becomes better
9: (c) Enquiry, Questioning and Debate
10: (c) a sensitive

History Questions and Answers

History Q & A
Who is considered to be the father of Ayurveda?
Charaka

Who, was the Nanda ruler at the time of Alexander’s invasion?
Dhana Nanda

The Gayatri Mantra contained in the Rigveda is dedicated to which deity?
Savitri

Who was the first governor of Portuguese in India?
De Almeida

On which river did Pulakesin II defeat Harshavardhana?
Narmada

Who was the first speaker of independent India?
G.V. Mavlankar

Who was the writer of ‘the Indian War of Independence’?
V.D. Savarkar

Who was thrice elected President of the Indian National Congress?
Dadabhai Naoroji

Late Raja Ravi Verma, was an eminent figure in which field?
Painting

Which ruler had granted Diwani to the East India company?
Shah Alam II

By whom was Saka era founded?
Kanishka

Who was responsible for the integration of Indian Princely States?
Sardar Patel

In India, where did the Dutch establish their earliest factory?
Masulipatnam

Who is related to Sarvodaya and Bhoodan movement?
Acharya Vinoda Bhave

Who was called Zinda Pir (living saint) in Mughal India?
Aurangzeb

At which place did Mahatma Gandhi start his first Satyagraha in India?
Champaran

Who betrayed Siraj-ud-Daulah in the battle of Plassey in 1757?
Mir Jafar

A Fortgotten Empire’, written by the renowned historian Robert Sewell, is about which empire?
Vijayanagar Empire

Who first started the civil services in India?
Cornwallis

Which Peshwas was popularly known as Nana-Saheb?
Balaji Baji Rao

Who founded ‘Bharat Sevak Samaj’ (Servants of Indian Society)?
Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Basic Geography Questions /Answers

Geography Q & A
Which country is the largest producer of Bauxite?
Australia

By what name is the Ganga known in Bangladesh?
Padma

Which hill station is known as the “Queen of Satpura”?
Panchmarhi

What is the name of India’s southern tip?
Indira Point

The deepest surface depression on earth is?
Mariana Trench

Which forest in India has the most extensive Mangroove vegetation?
Sundarbans

Which ecosystem covers the largest area of the earth’s surface?
Marine Ecosystem

What is the most abundant element in the earth’s crust?
Oxygen

Which is a global biodiversity hotspot in India?
Western Ghats

Which country in Africa has luxurious tropical rain forests?
Ivory Coast

Which soil is also known as 'Regur'?
Black Soil

Which river crosses the equator twice?
Congo

Country through which both Equator and Tropic of Capricorn pass?
Brazil

Which Strait separates Africa from Europe?
Strait of Gibraltar

Which is the largest island in the Indian Ocean?
Madagascar

Which is considered to have an adverse effect on Indian Monsoon?
El Nino

Lines joining places receiving equal amount of rain fall?
Isohytes

Which one is the longest river in India that flows entirely within India?
Godavari

Where is Sargasso sea located?
North Atlantic Ocean

Which planet is known as veiled planet?
Venus

After how many years does Halley’s comet appear once in a period?
76 years

Which type of forest covers the maximum area in India?
Tropical Deciduous Forest

What type of climate is best suited for horticulture?
Mediterranean

What is the most abundant metal in the earth’s crust?
Aluminium

Basic Indian Polity Q/A

Polity Q & A
Which writ is issued by the court in’ case of illegal detention of a person?
Habeas Corpus

Who was the first speaker of Lok Sabha?
G. V. Mavlankar

When was Constitution of India adopted and enacted by the Constituent Assembly?
26th Nov. 1949

The first census was conducted in India at the time of which governor general?
Lord Mayo

Which is the only Union Territory that has a High Court of its own?
Delhi

What Minimum age is required to contest for Presidentship?
35 years

Who is the Supreme Commander of India's armed forces?
President of India

What is the quorum of Lok sabha?
1/10th of total membership

In which year were the first general election held in India?
1951-52

Who is known as the first Law Officer of India?
Attorney General of India

Which writ examines the functioning of Subordinate Courts?
Certiorari

Till now, the Preamble of Constitution of India has been amended for how many times?
Once

Fundamental Duties were added by which constitutional amendment?
42nd amendment

Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter?
A 326

Who presides over the joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?
Speaker of Lok Sabha

President of India is elected by which method?
Single Transferable Vote

Name the two states in India who were first to establishe Panchayati Raj in 1956
Rajasthan & Andhra Pradesh

To whom does the Public Accounts Committee submit its report?
Speaker of Lok Sabha

First woman speaker of Lok Sabha __?
Meira Kumar

he President of India can nominate to how many members to Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha respectively?
12 & 2

Jurisdiction of which high courts covers the Union Territory of Lakshadweep?
Kerala HC

Where was the first Municipal Corporation set up in India?
Madras (Chennai)

Basic Science Q/A

Biology Q & A
Lacrymal glands are situated in the___?
Eye Orbit

Hansen's disease is also known as___?
Leprosy

The deficiency of which leads to dental caries?
Fluorine

What do we use as a moderator in nuclear reactor?
Graphite

Which lobe of human brain is associated with hearing?
Temporal Lobe

Blood group was discovered by whom?
Landsteiner

Name the largest gland in the human body?
Liver

Which mosquito is the carrier of Zika virus?
Aedes

Name the gas used for making vegetable ghee?
Hydrogen

Which vitamin is considered to be a hormone?
Vitamin D

Saliva helps in the digestion of which food component?
Starch

Which is known as graveyard of RBC's ?
Spleen

What is the Branch of science which deals with the study of skin of man?
Dermatology

What is the name of first cloned sheep ?
Dolly

Which metal is present in Insulin?
Zinc

The longest and largest bone in the human body is__?
Femur

Which vitamin is essential for the coagulation of blood?
Vitamin K

Name the acid found in Tomato?
Oxalix acid

Name the chemical used as anti-malarial drug?
Chloroquine

Which are phagocytes in liver?
Kupffer cells

Theory of natural selection was proposed by_______.
Charles Darwin

Economy Important Questions

Economy

Which is the oldest stock exchange in the world?
Amsterdam Stock Echange

Taxation and the government’s expenditure policy are dealt under under which policy?
Fiscal Policy

If the price of an inferior good falls, what about its demand?
Remains Constant

Which is the ‘Slack Season’ in the Indian Economy?
January-June

Which was first Commercial Bank of India?
Hindustan Bank

When was decimal coinage introduced in India?
1957

One rupee notes contain the signature of__?
Finance Secretary, GOI

Which bank is the Banker of the Banks?
RBI

Which European country is the guarantor of Bank of Central African States?
France

Where are the headquarters of IMF and World Bank located?
Washington DC

Economic growth is usually coupled with__?
Inflation

Who was the first Indian Governor of RBI?
Shachindra Ray

The main source of National Income in India is__?
Agricultural Sector

The philosophy of 'Laissez-faire' is associated with ?
Industrial States

When did India become a member of international Monetary Fund (IMF)?
1947

‘Golden Handshake Scheme’ is associated with__?
Voluntary Retirement

The first devaluation of Indian currency took place in which year ?
Name the Indian who got Nobel Prize for Economics?
Amartya Sen

National Income estimates in India is prepared by __?
Central Statistical Organization

Bad money (if not limited in quantity ) drives good money out of circulation.” is the law known as__?
Gresham's law

'Brent ' Index is associated with __?
Crude oil prices

MCQs based NCERT Class 7 Science Chapters

MCQs based NCERT Class 7 Science Chapters

Q1: The vessels which carry carbon dioxide rich blood from all parts of the body back to the heart are called

(a) Veins
(b) Arteries
(c) Capillaries
(d) Valves

Q2: There are some chemicals secreted by an insect to attract attention of other members of species. These are called

(a) vitamins
(b) hormones
(c) fibronin
(d) pheromones

Q3: Which gas is produced when sludge is digested?

(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Propane
(d) Butane

Q4: What do we call the network of several food chains connecting each other?

(a) Food Web
(b) Food Chain
(c) Food Cycle
(d) Trophic Level

Q5: Nagma was playing basketball with her team mates. Just after the game her pulse rate will

(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remains same
(d) none of these

Q6: While manufacturing heaters, electric irons etc. nichrome is used as element (or filament) because it offers

(a) high resistance
(b) low resistance
(c) no resistance
(d) High voltage

Q7: Neutralization of calcium hydroixide with hydrochloric acid is an example of

(a) physical change
(b) chemical change
(c) both physical and chemical change
(d) no change

Q8: Sakshi visited her friend who was on dialysis in the hospital. Which organ of Sakshi's friend was not working well?

(a) Heart
(b) Brain
(c) Eyes
(d) Kidney

Q9: Anil used a fuse as a safety device in the electrical circuit to prevent from short circuit. It melts at about 200° C. Which alloy is used to make it?

(a) Zinc and Tin
(b) Lead and Tin
(c) Lead and Copper
(d) Zinc and Copper

Q10: Generally cars have two side view mirrors. Which of the following is used as a side view mirror?

(a) convex mirror
(b) concave mirror
(c) plane mirror
(d) plane glass

Q11: Rahul wants to measure atmospheric pressure. Which instrument will he use?

(a) Pyrometer
(b) Seismograph
(c) Barometer
(d) Ammeter

Q12: The image of an object formed using the convex side of a steel spoon is ___________

(a) erect and smaller
(b) inverted and larger
(c) inverted and smaller
(d) erect and larger

Q13: On a very hot day, a girl has two choices for her dress, one lemon colour dress and another dark brown colour dress. She wore lemon colour dress to prevent _____ of heat.

(a) radiation
(b) absorption
(c) reflection
(d) refraction

Q14: A storm has drk funnel shaped cloud reached the ground from the sky and sucked dust, debris and all other things on its way. Such a storm is called

(a) Thunderstorm
(b) Tornado
(c) Cyclone
(d) Tsunami

Q15: To keep a very low temperature, dry ice is used. It is solid _________

(a) hydrogen
(b) water
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) air

Q16: Which mark is necessary on electrical appliances?

(a) EGGMARK
(b) ISI
(c) FICCI
(d) KSK

Q17: Which one of the following always carries oxygenated blood?

(a) Arteries except pulmonary artery
(b) Veins except pulmonary vein
(c) Blood Capillaries
(d) None of these

Q18: Which of the following is NOT responsible for water shortage?

(a) Rapid growth of industries
(b) Increasing population
(c) Heavy Rainfall
(d) Mismanagement of water resources

Q19: Which of the following is NOT prepared from the wood obtained from forests?

(a) Paper
(b) Thermocol
(c) Matchstick
(d) Plywood

Q20: Forests are NOT responsible for

(a) providing medicinal plants
(b) maintaining the flow of water into streams
(c) creating flood conditions
(d) absorbing rainwater and maintaining water table

Answers:
1: (a) Veins
2: (d) pheromones
3: (a) Methane
4: (a) Food Web
5: (a) increase
6: (a) high resistance
7: (b) chemical change
8: (d) Kidney
9: (a) Zinc and Tin
10: (a) convex mirror
11: (c) Barometer
12: (a) erect and smaller
13: (b) absorption
14: (b) Tornado
15: (c) carbon dioxide
16: (b) ISI
17: (a) Arteries except pulmonary artery
18: (c) Heavy Rainfall
19: (b) Thermocol
20: (c) creating flood conditions

Microorganisms

conversion of sugar into alcohol is known as  ...

(a) Budding
(b) Fusion
(c) Fermentation
(d) Fixation

Q2: What does our body produces to fight the invader when a disease-carrying microbe enters our body?

(a)  Antigens
(b)  Antibodies
(c)  Pathogens
(d)  Antibiotics

Q3: Who discovered Fermentation?

(a)  Edward Jenner
(b)  Alexander Fleming
(c)  Louis Pasteur
(d)  Selman Waksman

Q4: Which of the following is not a communicable disease?

(a) Cholera
(b) Chicken pox
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Malaria

Q5: Chicken Pox is caused by

(a)  Virus
(b)   Bacteria
(c)   Fungus
(d)   Protozoa

Q6: The common chemicals generally used to check the growth of microorganisms are known as ...

(a)  antibiotics
(b)  Preservatives
(c)  antigens
(d)  pathogens

Q7: The microorganisms that cause diseases in human beings, plants and animals are called ____

(a)  Carriers
(b)  Spirogyra
(c)  Pathogens
(d)  Antibodies

Q8:  Who discovered the vaccine for small pox?

(a)  Louis Pasteur
(b)  Alexander Fleming
(c)  Joseph Lister
(d)  Edward Jenner

Q9: Which of the following microorganism promotes the formation of curd?

(a)  Lactobacillus
(b)  Amoeba
(c)  Spiral bacteria
(d)  Spirogyra

Q10:  Which of the following bacteria is involved in the fixation of nitrogen in leguminous plants?

(a)  Rod-shaped bacteria
(b)  Spiral bacteria
(c)  Rhizobium
(d)  Spherical bacteria

Answers:
1: (c) Fermentation
2: (b)  Antibodies
3: (c)  Louis Pasteur
4: (d) Malaria
5: (a) Virus
6: (b)  Preservatives
8: (c)  Louis Pasteur
7: (c)  Pathogens
9: (a)  Lactobacillus
10:(c)  Rhizobium

CBSE Class 7 - Science

Q1: Which of the following is NOT an element of weather?
(a) Humidity
(b) Temperature
(c) Soil
(d) Rain

Q2: A carnivore with stripes on its body moves very fast while catching its prey. It is likely to be found in:
(a) polar regions
(b) deserts
(c) oceans
(d) tropical rainforests

Q3: Which of these is specifically an adaptation for cold climates?
(a) thick fur
(b) long ears
(c) sweating glands
(d) light bones

Q4: The special features and habits that help an animal survive in its environment are known as _______
(a) evolutions
(b) adaptations
(c) polymorphisms
(d) hibernation

Q5: In Western Ghats Of India, the Long tailed macaque is also known as _______

a) Indian Parrot
(b) Beard Ape
(c) Monkey
(d) Lemurs

Q6: Long Inactivity and metabolic depression of animals during winters is known as:
(a) aestivation
(b) migration
(c) evolution
(d) hibernation

Q7:  Birds are adapted to fly because of ___________,

(a) streamlined body
(b) light bones
(c) feathers and wings
(d) all of these

Q8: In India, rainforests are found in which of the following state?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Kerala

Q9: Water vapours present in the atmosphere is called

(a) humidity
(b) precipitation
(c) climate
(d) rain fall

Q10: Camouflage shown in polar bears is due to

(a) thick fur
(b) padded feet
(c) white fur
(d) two layers of fat

Answer:
1: (c) Soil
2: (d) tropical rainforests
3: (a) thick fur
4: (b) adaptations
5: (b) Beard Ape
6: (d) hibernation
7: (d) all of these
8: (c) Assam
9: (a) humidity
10:  (c) white fur

CBSE Class 6 - Social Science

CBSE Class 6 - Social Science

Q1: What is the length and breadth of India?

Answer: The length of India is 3,214 kms from Jammu and Kashmir in north to Kanyakumari in the south. Its breadth is 2,933 kms from Gujarat in the west to Arunachal Pradesh in east.

Q2: Name the two countries are our neighbours across the sea?

Answer: Srilanka and Maldives are two neighbouring countries across the sea.

Q3: Name three Himalayan Rivers.

Answer:
① Indus
② Ganga
③ Bhramputra

Q4: Name the largest and smallest state of India.

Answer: Rajasthan is the largest and Goa is the smallest state of India.

Q5: Name the mountain range in the north of India.

Answer: Himalaya is the mountain range that lies in the north of India.

Q6: Name the land neighbours of India.

Answer: Seven land neighbours:
① Pakistan
② Afghanistan
③ China,
④ Nepal,
⑤ Bhutan
⑥ Bangladesh
⑦ Myanmar

Q7: Which is the most populated country in the world?

Answer: China is the most populated country in the world.

Q8: Name the neighbouring country which touches its western border.

Answer: Pakistan is the neighbouring country which touches its western border.

Q9: Which is the second most populated country in the world?

Answer: India is the second most populated country in the world.

Q10: Name the water body that lies in the south of India.

Answer: Indian ocean is the water body that lies in the south of India.

Q11: Which part of India is called peninsula and why?

Answer: The southern part of India is called peninsula because it is surrounded by Bay of Bengal along the east coast,Arabian sea along the west coast and Indian Ocean in the south.

Q12: What is the difference between Kanyakumari and Indira point?

Answer: Kanyakumari is the southern most tip of the Indian mainland but Indira point in Andaman and Nicobar island is the southern most tip of the country.

Q 13: What are the political divisions of India?

Answer: India is divided into 29 states and 7 union territories.

Q 14: Name the Longest Beach in India.

Answer: Marina Beach, Chennai

CBSE Class 10 - Social Science(CTET)

CBSE Class 10 - Social Science
Minerals and Energy Resources

MCQs:

Q1: Limestone is associated with

(a) Sedimentary rock
(b) Igneous rock
(c) Metamorphic rock
(d) Tertiary rock

Q2(NCERT): Which one of the following minerals is formed by decomposition of rocks, leaving a residual mass of weathered material?

(a) coal
(b) bauxite
(c) gold
(d) zinc

Q3(CBSE): Which is correct about Magnetite iron core?

(a) Magnetite is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of quantity used.
(b) Magnetite has the inferior magnetic qualities which is not valuable in the electric industry.
(c) It is the finest iron ore with very high content of iron upto 70%.
(d) It has a slightly lower iron content than hematite (50-60%)

Q4: They study minerals as part of earth's crust for a better understanding of landforms. They are called:

(a) Scientists
(b) Geographers
(c) Geologists
(d) Ecologists

Q5(NCERT): Koderma, in Jharkhand is the leading producer of which one of the following minerals?
(a) bauxite
(b) mica
(c) iron ore
(d) copper

Q6(CBSE): Which one of the following is an essential feature of Mica?

(a) It is a metallic mineral made up of a series of plates
(b) It is not used in electric and electronic industry.
(c) It cannot be easily split into thin sheets
(d) It can be clear, black, green, red, yellow or brown.

Q7: Small occurrences of minerals in rocks are known as:

(a) Lodes
(b) Veins
(c) Orcs
(d) Crevices

Q8(NCERT): Which of the following minerals is contained in the Monazite sand?
(a) Oil
(b) Uranium
(c) Thorium
(d) Coal

Q9(CBSE): Which mineral belongs to the category of non-ferrous metals?

(a) Iron core
(b) Manganese
(c) Cobalt
(d) Copper

Q10: Khetri mines are famous for

(a) coal
(b) gold
(c) copper
(d) iron

Q11(CBSE): Which one of the following minerals is NOT obtained from the veins and lodes?

(a) Tin
(b) Zinc
(c) Lead
(d) Gypsum

Q12(CBSE): The larger occurrences of minerals of igneous and metamorphic rocks are called:

(a) Veins
(b) Lodes
(c) Beds
(d) Layers

Q13(NCERT): Minerals are deposited and accumulated in the stratas of which of the following rocks?

(a) sedimentary rocks
(b) metamorphic rocks
(c) igneous rocks
(d) none of the above

Q14: Rat-hole mining is found in

(a) Jharkhand
(b) Orissa
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Meghalaya

Q15(CBSE): Which one of the following minerals is largely derived from Ocean Waters?

(a) Bromine
(b) Silver
(c) Platinum
(d) Bauxite

Answers:
1: (a) Sedimentary rock
2: (b) bauxite
3: (c) It is the finest iron ore with very high content of iron upto 70%.
4: (c) Geologists
5: (b) mica
6: (d) It can be clear, black, green, red, yellow or brown.
7: (b) Veins
8: (c) Thorium
9: (d) Copper
10: (c) copper
11: (d) Gypsum
12: (b)Lodes
13: (a) sedimentary rocks
14: (d) Meghalaya
15: (a) Bromine

Q & A

Q16: Define minerals? Give two examples.

Answer: Minerals are naturally occurring homogenous substances with definable internal structure. e.g. coal and iron.

Q 17: Mention the properties used by geologist to classify the minerals.
Answer: Properties used by geologists to classify minerals are:
© colour
® hardness
® lusture
® density
® crystal formation

NTSE SAT Quiz(History)/ CTET(Social Studies)

NTSE SAT Quiz(History)/ CTET(Social Studies)

Q1: The most important text of Vedic Mathematics is:

(a) Atharva veda
(b) Sulva Sutras
(c) Sapta Sindhava
(d) Satapat Brahaman

Q2: Bengal became independent of imperial control after Aurangzeb’s death. Who among the following were its first rulers?

(a) Alivardi Khan
(b) Haider Jang
(c) Murshid Quli Khan
(d) Sirajudullah 

Q3(CTET Jan 2012): The division of the period of Indian History into 'Ancient', 'Medieval', and 'Modern' also has problems. Which of the following is one of the problems in it ?

(a) The concept has been borrowed from the West where Modern period was associated with science, reason, democracy, liberty and equality.
(b) Indian History seems to have clear lines of distinction between 'Ancient', and 'Medieval', and  'Medieval' and 'Modern' period
(c) Tripartite division . reflects gradual growth of the Indian State
(d) Three periods are insufficient to describe Indian History

Q4: The first Muslim ruler to introduce the system of price control was

(a) Iltutmish
(b) Jalaluddin Khalji
(c) Mullammad-bin-Tughlaq
(d) Alauddin Khalji

Q5(CTET Jan 2012): Pietra dura was a

(a) Style of decoration of buildings
(b) Role of succession
(c) Greek god
(d) Metallurgy technology

Q6(NTSE 2011): Mahatma Gandhi called off the Non-cooperation Movement after the Chauri Chaura incident because:
(a) he intended to avoid probable arrest
(b) Moplah peasants in Kerala opposed him.
(c) the movement had turned violent.
(d) of growing opposition to his leadership within Congress.

Q7: Which one of the following European trading groups first established its factory at Surat?
(a) The Portuguese
(b) The Dutch
(c) The English
(d) The French

Q8: Amir Khusrau was the famous poet in the court of :
(a) Akbar
(b) Shahjahan
(c) Alauddin Khalji
(d) Sikandar Lodhi

Q9: Who among the following advocated  ‘Gurilla war’ strategy:

(a) Shivaji
(b) Prithvi Raj 
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) Babar

Q10(CTET Jan 2012): Which of the following combinations of kingdoms was engaged in tripartite struggle?
(a) Chola, Rashtrakuta, Pala
(b) Pala, Pallava, Rashtrakuta
(c) Rashtrakuta, Pala, Gurjar-Pratihara
(d) Pala, Chola, Gurjar-Pratihara

Q11(NTSE 2010): If you lived in Agra during Shahjahan’s time what would you witness the most?
(a) Rebellion of Rajputs
(b) A lot of construction activity
(c) Peasant rebellions
(d) Flourishing banking activities

Q12(CTET Jan 2012): Muhammad-Bin-Tughlaq shifted his capital from Delhi to Daulatabad

(a) to escape from Mongols
(b) to punish Southern rulers
(c) to control his empire effectively as Daulatabad was centrally located
(d) as he was not getting enough revenue from North India 

Q13: Sirajuddaula lost his Mansab because of

(a) His weak army
(b) His religious army
(c) Widespread economic distress
(d) Intrigues and treachery at home

Q14: Hoysala monuments are found at
(a) Hampi
(b) Halebid
(c) Mysore
(d) Dharwar

Q15(CTET Jan 2012): Tanti, Momin and Devangs communities were engaged in
(a) Leather works
(b) Weaving
(c) Wood works
(d) Pottery making

Q16(CTET Jan 2012): Bidri was
(a) a type of copperware produced in Bidar
(b) an inlay work in copper and silver done by the artisans of Bidar
(c) a type of silk textile produced in Bidar
(d) a type of cotton textile produced in Bidar

Q17:  Which among the following causes was NOT the reason for the downfall of the Mughal empire?
(a) The Mansabdari system had corrupted and demoralized the Mughal Army
(b) The Mughal nobility had degenerated
(c) The empire had financial crisis
(d) Aurangzeb had divided the empire among his sons

Q18(NTSE 2010): Surat and Masulipatnam were important trading towns in 17th century. However in the 18th century they lost their importance. Which of the following was NOT responsible for their decline?

(a) Loss of market and productivity because of the decline of the Mughal Empire.
(b) Control of sea-routes by the Portugese and competition from Bombay.
(c) Fierce competition among various trading groups like Golconda nobles, Persian merchants etc.
(d) Shifting of company trade centres to Bombay, Calcutta and Madras.

Answers:
1: (b) Sulva Sutras
2: (c) Murshid Quli Khan
3: (a) The concept has been borrowed from the West where Modern period was associated with science, reason, democracy, liberty and equality.
4: (d) Alauddin Khalji
5: (a) Style of decoration of buildings
6: (c) the movement had turned violent.
7: (c) The English
8: (c) Alauddin Khalji
9: (a) Shivaji
10: (c) Rashtrakuta, Pala, Gurjar-Pratihara
11: (b) A lot of construction activity
12: (c) to control his empire effectively as Daulatabad was centrally located
13: (d) Intrigues and treachery at home
14: (b) Halebid
15: (b) Weaving
16: (b) an inlay work in copper and silver done by the artisans of Bidar
17: (d) Aurangzeb had divided the empire among his sons
18: (c) Fierce competition among various trading groups like Golconda nobles, Persian merchants etc.

NTSE/CTET/Class7/Class8 (Social Studies)

NTSE/CTET/Class7/Class8 (Social Studies)
1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.

2. How many permanent members are there in UN Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six

3. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.

4. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.

5. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny

6. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.

7. For Rajya Sabha, how many members are nominated by President
(a) 7
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 15

8. Chankya was the chief adviser of which ruler?
(a) Ashok
(b) Harshvardhan
(c) Chandragupta Maurya
(d) Kanishka

9. Akbar's tomb was located at ...
(a) Delhi
(b) Agra
(c) Fatehpur Sikri
(d) Sikandra

10. Mansabdari System was introduced by ....
(a) Akbar
(b) Sher Shah
(c) Humanyun
(d) Jahangir

Answer:
1 (d) abolition of untouchability
2 (c) Five
3 (a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau. (Hint: Read French Revolution Class 9 - NCERT)
4 (d) Members of the Lok Sabha.
5 (b) Herodotus
6 (b) Chief Minister
7 (c) 12
8 (c) Chandragupta Maurya
9 (d) Sikandra
10 (a) Akbar

General Awareness NTSE SAT Quiz-13 /CTET Social Science

General Awareness
NTSE SAT Quiz-13 /CTET Social Science

Q1: Who is the composer of National Anthem of India?
(a) Bankim Chandra Chatterji
(b) Sharat Chandra Chattopadhyay
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Q2: The International Labour Organisation is headquartered at
(a) Washington.
(b) Paris.
(c) Geneva.
(d) Rome.

Q3: Bush at War is a book authored by
(a) Mary N. Weaver.
(b) John Grisham.
(c) Jeffrey Archer.
(d) Bob Woodward.

Q4: The leading silk producing state in India is
(a) Karnataka.
(b) West Bengal.
(c) Madhya Pradesh.
(d) Himachal Pradesh.

Q5: ‘Kaizen’ means
(a) restructuring the processes.
(b) error-free production.
(c) continuous improvement in work process.
(d) weakening the weaknesses by strengthening the strengths.

Q6: World Population Day is observed on which of the following dates?
(a) May 1
(b) May 11
(c) July 1
(d) July 11

Q7: Which of the following correctly describes the three types of justice referred to in the Preamble?
(a) Economic, social and religious
(b) Political, economic and religious
(c) Social, economic and political
(d) Social, religious and political

Q8: SAARC is headquartered at
(a) Jakarta
(b) Bangkok
(c) Kuala Lampur
(d) Kathmandu

Q9: Which among the following countries does not have veto power in the UN Security Council?
(a) France
(b) England
(c) Germany
(d) Russia

Q10: Where is the headquarters of Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) situated?
(a) Vienna
(b) New York
(c) Abu Dhabi
(d) Kuwait City

Q11: Uber Cup is associated with which of the following games.
(a) Hockey
(b) Football
(c) Table Tennis
(d) Badminton

Q12: Who is regarded as ‘The Father of Economics’?
(a) J. M. Keynes
(b) J. K. Galbraith
(c) Vernon Smith
(d) Adam Smith

Q13: The first person to walk in space is ___.
(a) Neil Armstrong
(b) A. A. Leonov
(c) Yuri Gagarin
(d) Edwin Aldrin

Q14: The number of members nominated by the President in the Rajya Sabha is ___.
(a) two
(b) eight
(c) ten
(d) twelve

Q15: Which constitutional amendment is called the ‘Mini Constitution’?
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 43rd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 45th Amendment

Answer:
1: (c) Rabindranath Tagore
2: (c) Geneva
3: (d) Bob Woodward
4: (a) Karnataka.
5: (c) continuous improvement in work process.
6: (d) July 11
7: (c) Social, economic and political
8: (d) Kathmandu
9: (c) Germany
10: (a) Vienna
11: (d) Badminton
12: (d) Adam Smith
13: (c) Yuri Gagarin
14: (d) twelve
15: (a) 42nd Amendment